Goldstone boson without symmetry?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the U(1)_A problem in quantum field theory, particularly focusing on the implications of the chiral anomaly and the conditions under which Goldstone bosons arise. Participants explore the relationship between conserved charges and the existence of Goldstone bosons, questioning the necessity of spontaneous symmetry breaking.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • One participant notes that the Lagrangian exhibits a U(1)_A symmetry in the limit of vanishing quark masses, but the current J_5^{\mu} is not conserved due to the chiral anomaly.
  • Another participant argues that the charge associated with the modified current \tilde{J}_5^{\mu} is not gauge invariant, suggesting that Goldstone's theorem requires gauge invariance for the emergence of Goldstone bosons.
  • A later reply emphasizes that Goldstone bosons arise only from spontaneously broken continuous symmetries, implying that without such symmetry breaking, Goldstone bosons cannot exist.
  • One participant expresses confusion regarding the Kogut-Susskind solution to the U(1) problem, indicating a lack of understanding of its implications.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that Goldstone bosons are associated with spontaneously broken symmetries. However, there is disagreement regarding the implications of conserved charges and gauge invariance in the context of the U(1)_A problem.

Contextual Notes

There are unresolved questions regarding the relationship between gauge invariance and the physical relevance of non-gauge invariant quantities, as well as the specific implications of the Kogut-Susskind solution.

QuantumCosmo
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Hi,

I was wondering about the U(1)_A problem. The Lagrangian exhibits a (in the limit of vanishing quark masses) U(1)_A symmetry but due to the chiral anomaly, the current [tex]J_5^{\mu}[/tex] is not conserved:

[tex]\partial_{\mu}J_5^{\mu} = G\tilde{G} + 2i\bar{u}\gamma_5 u +...[/tex]

The [tex]G\tilde{G}[/tex] term is itself the divergence of the (not gauge invariant) current [tex]K^{\mu}[/tex].
(I have left out constant factors etc)

So in the limit of vanishing quark masses, the current [tex]\tilde{J}_5^{\mu} = J_5^{\mu} - K^{\mu}[/tex] is conserved and so is the charge

[tex]\tilde{Q}_5 = \int \tilde{J}_5^{\mu} \d^3[/tex]

Now it seems that although there actually isn't a U(1)_A symmetry in my theory, I still get a Goldstone boson because [tex]\tilde{Q}_5[/tex] is conserved.

But I thought Goldstone bosons occurred because of spontenously broken continuous symmetries and not because of conserved charges?

Can anyone help me with that?

Thank you very much,
Quantum
 
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AH! But this charge is not gauge invariant! Goldstone's Theorem as you normally see it requires gauge invariance.

In fact, you DO get poles in NON-Gauge invariant correlation functions, which Coleman refers to as "Goldstone Dipoles" in his "Aspects of Symmetry". But since these aren't gauge invariant, they don't contribute to physics (which is only described by gauge-invariant quantities).
 
QuantumCosmo said:
But I thought Goldstone bosons occurred because of spontenously broken continuous symmetries and not because of conserved charges?

Can anyone help me with that?

I just noticed this last sentence!

Of course, Goldstone bosons only come from spontaneously broken symmetries. So if you don't have that, then there are no Goldstone bosons at all.

This stuff about the Goldstone Dipole I mentioned earlier is relevant for the chiral Lagrangian, for example, to explain why there is no singlet after chiral symmetry breaking.

Is that what you were asking about?
 
Yeah... because I don't understand this Kogut Susskind solution to the U(1) problem at all...
 

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