Grassmann variables and functional derivatives

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the use of Grassmann variables in the context of functional derivatives within quantum electrodynamics (QED). The generating functional is defined as $$Z_0=e^{-i\int{d^4xd^4y \bar{J}(x)S(x-y)J(y)}}$$, where $$J(x)$$ and $$\bar{J}(x)$$ are Grassmann numbers. It is established that when extracting Green functions via functional derivatives, one must adhere to the rules of anticommutation between $$\bar{J}$$ and $$J$$, particularly when applying the right or left functional derivative consistently throughout the process.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Grassmann variables and their properties
  • Familiarity with functional derivatives in quantum field theory
  • Knowledge of quantum electrodynamics (QED) principles
  • Experience with Green functions and generating functionals
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the application of Grassmann variables in quantum field theory
  • Learn about the properties and applications of functional derivatives
  • Explore the derivation of Green functions from generating functionals
  • Investigate the implications of anticommutation relations in fermionic fields
USEFUL FOR

This discussion is beneficial for physicists, particularly those specializing in quantum field theory, quantum electrodynamics, and researchers working with fermionic fields and Grassmann variables.

Einj
Messages
464
Reaction score
59
Hi all! I'm sorry if this question has been already asked in another post...
I'm studying the path integrals formalism in QED. I'm dealing with the functional generator for fermionic fields. My question is:

The generating functional is:

$$Z_0=e^{-i\int{d^4xd^4y \bar{J}(x)S(x-y)J(y)}}$$

Where $$J(x)$$ and $$\bar{J}(x)$$ are Grassmann numbers.
When I have to extract Green function from the generating functional I have to perform, for example, a functional derivative rispect to J(z). Does the functional derivative follow the same rule as the ordinary derivative? Do I have to anticommutate $$\bar{J}$$ and $$J$$ before deriving??

Thaks to all
Einj
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Normally yes, because you'd have to use either the left functional derivative or the right one constantly throughout. For example, if you use the right derivative and the Jbar is to the left, you'd have to shift it past J (that is bring it to the right) and then differentiate. So the answer is yes.
 
Thank you very much! You have been great!

Einj
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 0 ·
Replies
0
Views
1K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 24 ·
Replies
24
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K