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The question Ive been struggling with is supposed to be solved using the way Lagrange's thm was proven( with number of cosets and stuff). However, it remains a mystery how to do it:

Let G be a finite group and H<G with |G|=m|H|. Proof that

[tex] g^{m!} \in H, \forall g \in G[/tex]

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# Group theory, Lagrange theorem

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