jeff1evesque
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Homework Statement
The time-average of any time-harmonic function is always zero.
Homework Equations
<v(t)> = \frac{1}{T} \int_{0}^{T}v(t)dt = \frac{1}{T} \int_{0}^{T}V_{0}cos(\omega t + \phi)dt \equiv 0
The Attempt at a Solution
A harmonic function I think is defined as a sinusoidal function with some sort of fixed period, and a given phase. Here, I am just trying to understand notes I am reading. I don't understand why there is fraction of \frac{1}{T} in the equation above. Could someone also
explain to me why the time averages is initially defined as <v(t)> = \frac{1}{T} \int_{0}^{T}v(t)dt, and why it is set to zero.Thanks,Jeffrey