Harmonic Function (time averages)

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The discussion centers on the time-average of time-harmonic functions, specifically addressing the claim that this average is always zero. The average is calculated using the formula <v(t)> = (1/T) ∫(0 to T)v(t)dt, where T is the time interval. It is clarified that the time-average is zero only if T is an integer multiple of the function's period. The participants express confusion over the assertion in the notes that the average is always zero, emphasizing that this is not universally true. The conversation highlights the importance of understanding the conditions under which the time-average of harmonic functions is computed.
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Homework Statement


The time-average of any time-harmonic function is always zero.

Homework Equations


&lt;v(t)&gt; = \frac{1}{T} \int_{0}^{T}v(t)dt = \frac{1}{T} \int_{0}^{T}V_{0}cos(\omega t + \phi)dt \equiv 0

The Attempt at a Solution


A harmonic function I think is defined as a sinusoidal function with some sort of fixed period, and a given phase. Here, I am just trying to understand notes I am reading. I don't understand why there is fraction of \frac{1}{T} in the equation above. Could someone also
explain to me why the time averages is initially defined as &lt;v(t)&gt; = \frac{1}{T} \int_{0}^{T}v(t)dt, and why it is set to zero.Thanks,Jeffrey
 
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In general, we define the average value of a function, f, on some interval [a,b] by,

\bar{f} = \frac{1}{b-a}\int^{a}_{b}f\left(x\right)\; dx

Effectively what we are doing is summing the value of the function, f, at a set of equally spaced points along the interval [a,b], then dividing by the number of points. We then take the limit as the number of points approaches infinity to obtain the formula quoted above. See http://www.ugrad.math.ubc.ca/coursedoc/math101/notes/applications/average.html" for more information.

Now in terms of your integral, T represents the time interval and therefore we set T = b - a and integrate along the segment [0,T].

Now, let's take a closer look at your example. Your integrand is most definitely a time-harmonic function, so let's compute the average explicitly:

\bar{v} = \frac{V_0}{T}\int^T_0 \cos\left(\omega t + \phi\right)\; dt

\bar{v} = \frac{V_0}{T\omega}\left.\sin\left(\omega t + \phi\right)\right|_0^T\; dt

Hence, \bar{v} is zero iff,

\sin\left(\omega T + \phi\right) = \sin\left(\phi\right)

which reduces to

\omega T = 2n\pi\;\;\;,\;\;\; n\in\mathbb{Z}[/itex]<br /> <br /> Hence, the time-average of a time-harmonic function is zero iff,<br /> <br /> T = \frac{n}{f}<br /> <br /> i.e. iff the time interval of integration is an integer multiple of the period.
 
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That makes sense, but why does my notes say it is always zero?
 
jeff1evesque said:
That makes sense, but why does my notes say it is always zero?
Without seeing your notes, I couldn't possibly say. Do your notes give any conditions or definitions on T?
 
Hootenanny said:
Without seeing your notes, I couldn't possibly say. Do your notes give any conditions or definitions on T?

It just says, The time-average of any time-harmonic function is always zero.
 
jeff1evesque said:
It just says, The time-average of any time-harmonic function is always zero.
Well that simply isn't true, as you can plainly see from explicitly computing the time-average of a general time-harmonic function. If T was the period, then I would agree with the statement, but in general it isn't true.

Are you using a textbook, or are these class notes?
 
Hootenanny said:
Well that simply isn't true, as you can plainly see from explicitly computing the time-average of a general time-harmonic function.

Are you using a textbook, or are these class notes?

PDF notes from the lecturer. In this particular section of notes, we are discussing complex vectors and phasor notation to discuss sinusoidal varying vectors.
 
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