Having trouble showing hermitian-ness.

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of Hermitian operators in quantum mechanics, specifically in the context of demonstrating whether certain operators, such as the Hamiltonian and the parity operator, are Hermitian. Participants reference textbooks and definitions while exploring the properties of these operators.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the definition of Hermitian operators and the adjoint operator, expressing confusion about the demonstration process. Questions arise regarding specific steps in proving the Hermitian nature of operators, particularly in relation to the Hamiltonian and the parity operator.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants sharing their understanding and seeking clarification on specific steps in the demonstration of Hermitian properties. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of orthonormal bases, but there is no explicit consensus on the methods to be used for different operators.

Contextual Notes

Participants note challenges in justifying certain mathematical manipulations, particularly in relation to the evenness or oddness of functions when applying the parity operator. There is also mention of the importance of the imaginary unit in the context of Hermitian operators.

mateomy
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(Is that a word? I dunno.)

Anyway,

I'm going through Griffiths QM and I'm also supplementing it with Lifschitz QM. I can't seem to show whether or not an operator is hermitian or not.

For instance, Lifschitz shows the hermitian-ness of the Hamiltonian,
<br /> \frac{d}{dt}\int \psi \psi^* dq\,=\,\int\psi\frac{\partial \psi^*}{\partial t}dq\,=\,0<br />
Substituting...
<br /> \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}=\,-i\hat{H}\psi<br />
<br /> \frac{\partial \psi^*}{\partial t}=\,i\hat{H}^*\psi^*<br />

<br /> \int\psi\left(i\hat{H}^*\right)\psi^* dq\,-\,\int\psi^*\left(-i\hat{H}\right)\psi dq<br />

In the next step he does away with the i and I'm not sure how he pulls that off because, say, you're checking if the deriviative \frac{d}{dx} is hermitian or not, it ends up being crucial to the hermitian-ness that it be multiplied by i. Moving on with Lifschitz...
<br /> \int\psi^*\hat{H}^*\psi dq \,-\,\int\psi^*\hat{H}\psi dq<br />
<br /> \int\psi^*\left(\hat{H}^*\,-\,\hat{H}\right)\psi dq=\,0<br />
Which shows that (due to the constancy of the norm'd \psi's) \hat{H^*}-\hat{H}=0.

Except for the part I mentioned above, I understand how this works. I just don't know how to show it for other operators. Is the method pretty much the same?
 
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By definition the adjoint operator is:

&lt;Ax|y&gt;=&lt;x|A^{*}y&gt;

So if it is self adjoint : A=A^{*} then &lt;Ax|y&gt;=&lt;x|Ay&gt;
 
Yeah, I understand the definition...its the demonstration I'm having issues with. For instance if I have an operator such as the parity operator (P), such that,
<br /> P f(x) = f(-x)<br />
and I use the definition
<br /> &lt;Pf(x)|g(x)&gt;\,=\,&lt;f(x)|P^*g(x)&gt;<br />
<br /> &lt;f(-x)|g(x)&gt;\,=\,&lt;f(x)|g(-x)&gt;<br />
I don't know which step to take after this. I can't justify pulling the negative outside of the functions because that depends on whether or not they are even or odd. So confused.
 
Expand f(x) and g(x') in an orthonormal basis (this exists as we have an inner product defined on the space ...).
 

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