Help with Tensors: Using Einstein Summation Convention

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of the Einstein summation convention in the context of tensors, specifically focusing on the expression $$R^2=\eta_{\mu\nu}x^{\mu}x^{\nu}$$ and its derivatives. Participants are exploring how to demonstrate that $$\eta^{\alpha \beta}\partial_{\alpha}\partial_{\beta}\frac{1}{R^2}=0$$ using various approaches and reasoning.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to differentiate the expression for $$R^2$$ but encounters complications with terms involving $$x^{\nu}x_{\alpha}$$. Some participants suggest differentiating the identity $$1 \equiv \frac{1}{R^2} R^2$$ as a potential approach. Others express uncertainty about the effectiveness of this suggestion and inquire about progress made through other methods.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants sharing their attempts and questioning the validity of certain assumptions, such as the orthogonality of vectors. Some guidance has been offered regarding differentiation strategies, but no consensus or resolution has been reached yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of tensor calculus and the implications of the Einstein summation convention, with specific attention to the assumptions that may affect their reasoning. There is a noted concern about the implications of assuming orthogonality in the context of the problem.

user1139
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Homework Statement
Show that the d'Alembertian of the scalar $$1/R^2=0$$
Relevant Equations
I am suppose to use this expression $$\partial_{\mu}R=\frac{\eta_{\mu\nu} x^{\nu}}{R}$$ to help show
Assuming Einstein summation convention, suppose $$R^2=\eta_{\mu\nu}x^{\mu}x^{\nu}$$

I was able to show that $$\partial_{\mu}R=\frac{\eta_{\mu\nu} x^{\nu}}{R}$$ by explicitly doing the covariant component of the four-gradient and using the kronecker tensor.

However, how do I use the equation expressed in the second paragraph to show that $$\eta^{\alpha \beta}\partial_{\alpha}\partial_{\beta}\frac{1}{R^2}=0$$? I tried $$R\rightarrow \frac{1}{R^2}$$ but I got expressions containing $$x^{\nu}x_{\alpha}$$ which will not give me 0 unless I assume $$x^{\nu}$$ and $$x_{\alpha}$$ are orthogonal which I think is wrong to do so.
 
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One idea is to differentiate ##1 \equiv \frac 1 {R^2} R^2##.
 
I am not sure if that helps though.
 
Thomas1 said:
I am not sure if that helps though.
Have you made progress by other means?
 
Unfortunately, no.
 
Thomas1 said:
Unfortunately, no.
Try this: $$0 = \partial_{\beta}(\frac{1}{R^2}{R^2}) = \partial_{\beta}(\frac 1 {R^2})R^2 + \frac 1 {R^2} \partial_{\beta}(R^2)$$ $$\partial_{\beta}(\frac 1 {R^2}) = -\frac{1}{R^4}\partial_{\beta}(R^2)$$ Then differeniate the first equation again by ##\partial_{\alpha}##: $$0 = \partial_{\alpha}\partial_{\beta}(\frac{1}{R^2}{R^2}) = \partial_{\alpha} \big [ \partial_{\beta}(\frac 1 {R^2})R^2 + \frac 1 {R^2} \partial_{\beta}(R^2) \big ]$$ And see whether you can make progress.
 
PS try also to show that $$\partial_{\alpha} R^2 = 2x_{\alpha}$$
 

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