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I Holographic principle, non-locality, and Lorentz invariance

  1. Dec 27, 2016 #1
    Hi all,

    Some recent comments from the forums here led me to do a bit of reading on the holographic principle, and to a posting on "The Reference Frame" by Lubos Moti about the (likely lack of) 'holographic noise' in the experiment by Craig Hogan at Fermilab (http://motls.blogspot.ca/2012/02/hogans-holographic-noise-doesnt-exist.html). At the end of the post, Moti makes the following comment:

    "When we talk about exotic miracles attributed to the holographic principle, I find it much more plausible – although "less likely than Yes" – that the holographic principle could modify the motion of celestial bodies at a very low acceleration because some interference effects start to work very differently. Such effects would occur because of astronomically long interference patterns seen in the holographic description of celestial bodies. But note that the effect only has a chance to exist here because the small value of G is incorporated into very low accelerations of the celestial bodies (galaxies etc.)."

    Two questions about the above for the experts here:

    1) Is the interference effect Moti is referring to a non-local effect? (it appears to be)
    2) I had understood that the holographic principle respects Lorentz invariance (Bousso explicitly states this) ... but the above might imply otherwise?

  2. jcsd
  3. Jan 1, 2017 #2
    Thanks for the thread! This is an automated courtesy bump. Sorry you aren't generating responses at the moment. Do you have any further information, come to any new conclusions or is it possible to reword the post? The more details the better.
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