How Big Must N Be for Stirling's Formula to Achieve 2% Accuracy?

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To determine how large N must be for Stirling's formula to achieve 2% accuracy, the discussion emphasizes that the simplest version of the formula, which omits certain factors, will never reach this accuracy regardless of N's size. The correct approach involves using inequalities derived from Feller's work, which provide bounds for N! that can help assess when the formula is within 2% of the true value. While some participants suggest substituting values for N, others clarify that direct algebraic solutions are not feasible. Ultimately, the conversation highlights the importance of understanding the limitations of simplified formulas in approximating factorial values accurately.
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Homework Statement


How big must N be for the simple version of stirlings formula to be accurate to within 2%

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


So I think the starting point is

##\frac{N lnN-N}{lnN!} =\alpha ## where ##\alpha=0.98##

But i have no idea how to solve this expression for N

Many thanks
 
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Physgeek64 said:

Homework Statement


How big must N be for the simple version of stirlings formula to be accurate to within 2%

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


So I think the starting point is

##\frac{N lnN-N}{lnN!} =\alpha ## where ##\alpha=0.98##

But i have no idea how to solve this expression for N
You can't solve it algebraically, but you can substitute values of N. With N = 100, ##\alpha \approx 0.991##
 
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One thing that can aid in the computation is ## \ln{ N!}=\ln{N}+\ln(N-1)+... +\ln{2}+\ln{1} ##, but otherwise, this simply needs to be computed with the computer doing the work.
 
Physgeek64 said:

Homework Statement


How big must N be for the simple version of stirlings formula to be accurate to within 2%

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


So I think the starting point is

##\frac{N lnN-N}{lnN!} =\alpha ## where ##\alpha=0.98##

But i have no idea how to solve this expression for N

Many thanks

What, exactly, do you regard as the "simple version" of Stirling's formula? The simplest version that actually works is
$$N! \sim \sqrt{2 \pi} \, N^{N+ (1/2)} \, e^{-N},$$
and without the factors ##\sqrt{2 \pi}## and ##\sqrt{N}## the formula can never, ever get within 2% of ##N!##, no matter how large is ##N##.

However, in pp. 52--54 of his beautiful probability book, Feller gives a surprisingly simple derivation of the following:
$$\sqrt{2 \pi} N^{N+ (1/2)} e^{-N} < N! < \sqrt{2 \pi} \, N^{N+ (1/2)} \, e^{-N\:+\: 1/(12N)},$$
and this works for all ##N \geq 1##. (For clarity:the exponent is ##-N + \frac{1}{12N}##.) For example, even when ##N## is as small as ##N=1## the inequalities read as ##0.9221< 1 < 1.002##.

The inequalities should allow you to figure out when ##\sqrt{2 \pi}\, N^{N+ (1/2)} \, e^{-N}## comes within 2% of ##N!##.

See, eg., https://www.amazon.com/dp/0471257087/?tag=pfamazon01-20 for more information on Feller's book. I understand that free versions are now available on-line as pdf files.
 
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Ray Vickson said:
What, exactly, do you regard as the "simple version" of Stirling's formula? The simplest version that actually works is
$$N! \sim \sqrt{2 \pi} \, N^{N+ (1/2)} \, e^{-N},$$
and without the factors ##\sqrt{2 \pi}## and ##\sqrt{N}## the formula can never, ever get within 2% of ##N!##, no matter how large is ##N##.

However, in pp. 52--54 of his beautiful probability book, Feller gives a surprisingly simple derivation of the following:
$$\sqrt{2 \pi} N^{N+ (1/2)} e^{-N} < N! < \sqrt{2 \pi} \, N^{N+ (1/2)} \, e^{-N\:+\: 1/(12N)},$$
and this works for all ##N \geq 1##. (For clarity:the exponent is ##-N + \frac{1}{12N}##.) For example, even when ##N## is as small as ##N=1## the inequalities read as ##0.9221< 1 < 1.002##.

The inequalities should allow you to figure out when ##\sqrt{2 \pi}\, N^{N+ (1/2)} \, e^{-N}## comes within 2% of ##N!##.

See, eg., https://www.amazon.com/dp/0471257087/?tag=pfamazon01-20 for more information on Feller's book. I understand that free versions are now available on-line as pdf files.
I think the 'simplest formula' is meant to be ##NlnN-N## in this case
 
Physgeek64 said:
I think the 'simplest formula' is meant to be ##NlnN-N## in this case

It is simple for sure; it is also wrong. You must beware of assuming that an accurate formula for ##\ln (f(n)## produces an accurate formula for ##f(n)## via exponentiation. It generally does not, and Stirling's formula is a perfect example of that.
 
Ray Vickson said:
It is simple for sure; it is also wrong. You must beware of assuming that an accurate formula for ##\ln (f(n)## produces an accurate formula for ##f(n)## via exponentiation. It generally does not, and Stirling's formula is a perfect example of that.
Okay, but how would i go about working out for which N gives an answer to within 2% of the true value? Thanks :)
 
Physgeek64 said:
Okay, but how would i go about working out for which N gives an answer to within 2% of the true value? Thanks :)

Use the two inequalities I wrote in #4.
 
Ray Vickson said:
Use the two inequalities I wrote in #4.
Can you solve for N in these, or just plug in values of N?
 
  • #10
Ray Vickson said:
You must beware of assuming that an accurate formula for ##\ln (f(n)## produces an accurate formula for ##f(n)## via exponentiation. It generally does not, and Stirling's formula is a perfect example of that.
If the accuracy of ln( f(n) ) is in terms of abs( trueValue - estimatedValue ) and the desired accuracy is in terms of percentage, I think this should be possible.
 
  • #11
FactChecker said:
If the accuracy of ln( f(n) ) is in terms of abs( trueValue - estimatedValue ) and the desired accuracy is in terms of percentage, I think this should be possible.
Unfortunately, not. If ##f(n) \sim g(n) \to \infty## as well as ## \ln f(n), \ln g(n) \to \infty##, then we have ##\ln f(n) \sim \ln g(n)##. However, we also have ##\ln f(n) \sim \ln 2 + \ln g(n)##, and yet we do not have ##2 g(n)## asymptotic to ##f(n)##. And that is the problem right there: an additive constant in the logarithm (whose importance goes to zero in the limit) becomes a constant mutliplicative factor in the original function, whose importance never goes away.
 
  • #12
Physgeek64 said:
Can you solve for N in these, or just plug in values of N?

You can do it either way, but solving directly for N is easier.
 
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