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In the context of families of seminorms I've come across these two definitions;
i) a family of seminorms \{ p_I \} is separating if p_I = 0 for all I implies x=0.
ii) for a family of seminorms, when for every x \in X / \{ 0 \} there is a seminorm p_I such that p_I (x) > 0.
It is easy to show these imply each other. I have now come across another definition for a family of functions to be separating (not necessarily seminorms):
iii) a family of functions \{ p_I \} is separating if for each pair of points x \not= y we find p_I such that p_I (x) \not= p_I (y)
It is easy to show iii) implies ii) if you assume the functions of condition iii) satisfy p_I (0) = 0. My question is how condition iii) could be implied by either of the others.
i) a family of seminorms \{ p_I \} is separating if p_I = 0 for all I implies x=0.
ii) for a family of seminorms, when for every x \in X / \{ 0 \} there is a seminorm p_I such that p_I (x) > 0.
It is easy to show these imply each other. I have now come across another definition for a family of functions to be separating (not necessarily seminorms):
iii) a family of functions \{ p_I \} is separating if for each pair of points x \not= y we find p_I such that p_I (x) \not= p_I (y)
It is easy to show iii) implies ii) if you assume the functions of condition iii) satisfy p_I (0) = 0. My question is how condition iii) could be implied by either of the others.
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