Rochefort
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The question
In my work \mu is the mass per unit length, therefore I believe I can say m=\mu\Delta xbecause Michael Fowler from the University of Virginia does the same at http://galileo.phys.virginia.edu/classes/152.mf1i.spring02/AnalyzingWaves.htm (the 2nd line bellow the graph)
I start from\int^{b}_{0}\sqrt{1+\cos^{2}\left( x\right) }dx=\dfrac{\mu B}{N} and since it is nonsensical to say \int^{b}_{0}\sqrt{1+\cos^{2}\left( x\right) }\left( dx\right)^{2}=\dfrac {mB}{N} for a few reasons, I converted the definite integral into a Riemann sum and got \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty }\sum^{n}_{i=1}\left[\sqrt{1+\cos^{2}\left( \dfrac {b_i}{n}\right) }\right]\left( \dfrac{b}{n}\right)^{2}=\dfrac{mB}{N}
Is this correct? Since I am dealing with \Delta x and not dx (which deals with infinitely small) I can bring \Delta x to the other side from \dfrac {m B}{N\Delta x} right? (Also \dfrac {b}{n}=\Delta x in the Riemann sum)
In my work \mu is the mass per unit length, therefore I believe I can say m=\mu\Delta xbecause Michael Fowler from the University of Virginia does the same at http://galileo.phys.virginia.edu/classes/152.mf1i.spring02/AnalyzingWaves.htm (the 2nd line bellow the graph)
I start from\int^{b}_{0}\sqrt{1+\cos^{2}\left( x\right) }dx=\dfrac{\mu B}{N} and since it is nonsensical to say \int^{b}_{0}\sqrt{1+\cos^{2}\left( x\right) }\left( dx\right)^{2}=\dfrac {mB}{N} for a few reasons, I converted the definite integral into a Riemann sum and got \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty }\sum^{n}_{i=1}\left[\sqrt{1+\cos^{2}\left( \dfrac {b_i}{n}\right) }\right]\left( \dfrac{b}{n}\right)^{2}=\dfrac{mB}{N}
Is this correct? Since I am dealing with \Delta x and not dx (which deals with infinitely small) I can bring \Delta x to the other side from \dfrac {m B}{N\Delta x} right? (Also \dfrac {b}{n}=\Delta x in the Riemann sum)
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