How did Newton derive his law of gravity?

AI Thread Summary
Newton's law of gravitation, expressed as F = GMm/r^2, has a derivation that includes the term k/(4π), where k represents a gravitational constant. The discussion highlights confusion regarding the origin of this term and its significance in the derivation process. It is clarified that by defining k in a specific way, the constant 4π² can be eliminated from the equation, simplifying the relationship. Ultimately, this leads to the conclusion that G can be redefined as 4π²k, maintaining the integrity of the gravitational law. Understanding this derivation enhances comprehension of Newton's formulation of gravity.
hover
Messages
342
Reaction score
0
For some reason I have been extremely curious of how Newton derived his mathematical law for gravitation. You know

F= \frac{GMm}{r^2}

So the first thing I did before i posted this was search Google and I foundhttp://www.relativitycalculator.com/Newton_Universal_Gravity_Law.shtml" . It talks about a possible derivation of how Newton could have derived his law of gravity. It looks pretty good and I understand most of it BUT there is one part I don't understand. There is one part in the derivation that looks like this.

\frac{C}{M}=\frac{c}{m}=\frac{k}{4\pi}

In this situation k is the gravitational constant and 4pi is... 4pi. My question is WHERE did this k/(4pi) come from? Why set these two equations equal to k/(4pi)? Can someone tell me where this k/(4pi) came from??

Thanks for your responce :D
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
Well, get rid of it and see what happens!

\frac{C}{M}=\frac{c}{m}=k
then
C = kM, c=km
f^2 = f*f' = m\frac{4\pi^2C}{r^2}M\frac{4\pi^2c}{r^2}
= m\frac{4\pi^2kM}{r^2}M\frac{4\pi^2km}{r^2}
= 16\pi^4k^2\frac{M^2m^2}{r^4}

f = 4\pi^2k\frac{Mm}{r^2}

So you get the same result but with the unnecessary constant of 4\pi^2 in front, so they defined k in a way that eliminates that constant..

Of course, if you want to, you could also just say G = 4\pi^2k.
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Back
Top