How do I normalize the wave equation?

AI Thread Summary
To normalize the wave function Ψ(x) = C/(a^2 + x^2), the integral ∫_{-∞}^{∞} |Ψ(x)|^2 dx must equal 1. The user successfully found that C^2/a^3 = 2/π after substituting x = a * tan(θ) and evaluating the integral. They are now seeking to calculate the expectation values E[X] and E[X^2], noting that E[X] is zero due to the symmetry of the function. The user expresses uncertainty about posting a full solution but is open to sharing their findings. The discussion highlights the process of normalization and the calculation of expectation values in quantum mechanics.
C. Darwin
Messages
18
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


\Psi(x) = \frac{C}{a^2 + x^2}


Homework Equations


I know to do this I need to solve for:
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \left|\Psi(x)\right|^2 = 1


The Attempt at a Solution


I'm not sure how to do it for this function. I've tried various methods to solve
C^2 \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{dx}{(a^2 + x^2)^2} = 1
 
Physics news on Phys.org
By substiting
x =a * tan(\theta)
I was able to solve for
\frac{C^2}{a^3} = \frac{2}{\pi}

I now need to find the expectation values of x and x^2 I'm not sure how to get started (are they just zero? if I plot this function I get a curve peaked at x=0...)
 
E[X]=\int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty} x \left|\Psi(x)\right|^2 {\rm d}x

f(x)=\Psi^2(x) is even and g(x)=x is odd \Rightarrow E[X]=\int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty} g(x)f(x) {\rm d}x= 0

E[X^2]=\int\limits_{-\infty}^{+\infty} x^2 \left|\Psi(x)\right|^2 {\rm d}x =?
 
Last edited:
Thanks, I got it. Am I supposed to post a full solution?
 
I don't know but it would be nice.
 
Thread 'Help with Time-Independent Perturbation Theory "Good" States Proof'
(Disclaimer: this is not a HW question. I am self-studying, and this felt like the type of question I've seen in this forum. If there is somewhere better for me to share this doubt, please let me know and I'll transfer it right away.) I am currently reviewing Chapter 7 of Introduction to QM by Griffiths. I have been stuck for an hour or so trying to understand the last paragraph of this proof (pls check the attached file). It claims that we can express Ψ_{γ}(0) as a linear combination of...
Back
Top