AwesomeTrains
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Hello everyone!
I'm stuck at an Electrodynamics problem and would be happy for some guidance
1. Homework Statement
A magnetic dipole \vec{m}(t)=\vec{m}_0cos(\omega t) at the origin can be described by the current density \vec{j}(\vec{r},t)=-\vec{m}(t)\times\vec{\nabla}\delta(\vec{r}). Calculate the retarded potentials:
\Phi(\vec{r},t) and \vec{A}(\vec{r},t).
Given hint: "It is easier to first do the integration by parts and then transform the derivative with right to \vec{r}' into the derivative with right to \vec{r}".
\vec{A}(\vec{r},t)=\int_V\frac{\vec{j}(\vec{r},t)}{|\vec{r}-\vec{r}'|}d^3\vec{r}'
\Phi(\vec{r},t)=\int_V\frac{\rho(\vec{r},t)}{|\vec{r}-\vec{r}'|}d^3\vec{r}'
3. The Attempt at a Solution
I tried calculating the x-component of the vector potential and got this:
A_x(\vec{r},t)=\int_V\frac{(m_y\partial_z-m_z\partial_y)}{|\vec{r}-\vec{r}'|}\delta(\vec{r}')d^3\vec{r}'<br /> =\frac{(m_y\partial_z-m_z\partial_y)}{|\vec{r}-0|}
Where eg. m_y ist the y-component of the dipole vector. I get the last equation because of the delta distribution property \int^{\infty}_{\infty}f(x)\delta(x)dx=f(0).
But this doesn't seem right, I didn't do any integration like the hint was suggesting.
Is this the right approach? I don't understand when I'm supposed to make use of the hint.
Kind regards
Alex
I'm stuck at an Electrodynamics problem and would be happy for some guidance
1. Homework Statement
A magnetic dipole \vec{m}(t)=\vec{m}_0cos(\omega t) at the origin can be described by the current density \vec{j}(\vec{r},t)=-\vec{m}(t)\times\vec{\nabla}\delta(\vec{r}). Calculate the retarded potentials:
\Phi(\vec{r},t) and \vec{A}(\vec{r},t).
Given hint: "It is easier to first do the integration by parts and then transform the derivative with right to \vec{r}' into the derivative with right to \vec{r}".
Homework Equations
\vec{A}(\vec{r},t)=\int_V\frac{\vec{j}(\vec{r},t)}{|\vec{r}-\vec{r}'|}d^3\vec{r}'
\Phi(\vec{r},t)=\int_V\frac{\rho(\vec{r},t)}{|\vec{r}-\vec{r}'|}d^3\vec{r}'
3. The Attempt at a Solution
I tried calculating the x-component of the vector potential and got this:
A_x(\vec{r},t)=\int_V\frac{(m_y\partial_z-m_z\partial_y)}{|\vec{r}-\vec{r}'|}\delta(\vec{r}')d^3\vec{r}'<br /> =\frac{(m_y\partial_z-m_z\partial_y)}{|\vec{r}-0|}
Where eg. m_y ist the y-component of the dipole vector. I get the last equation because of the delta distribution property \int^{\infty}_{\infty}f(x)\delta(x)dx=f(0).
But this doesn't seem right, I didn't do any integration like the hint was suggesting.
Is this the right approach? I don't understand when I'm supposed to make use of the hint.
Kind regards
Alex