How Do You Continue the Proof for the Dyadic Product in Fluid Dynamics?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the proof of the dyadic product in fluid dynamics, specifically how to take the dot product between a vector and a tensor. Participants clarify that the dot product of a vector with a tensor results in a new vector, and they explore the implications of this operation in the context of fluid dynamics equations. The conversation includes detailed evaluations of specific dot products and the resulting expressions, leading to a better understanding of how to manipulate these mathematical constructs. Ultimately, the final expression derived represents the acceleration vector of the fluid at each point in a steady-state flow. The participants successfully work through their confusion, demonstrating the application of these concepts in fluid dynamics.
Feodalherren
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Homework Statement


Hi, I wasn't sure whether to post this here or in the engineering forums. Since it's mainly math/theory I figured here would be more appropriate. Feel free to move it if it doesn't belong here. All relevant info etc. is in the picture, thanks.

Homework Equations


asd.png


The Attempt at a Solution


Ok so my problem is, how do I move on with the proof from here?
Can you take the dot product between just the vector V=<Vx, Vy, Vz> and this whole big mess?
 
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Feodalherren said:

Homework Statement


Hi, I wasn't sure whether to post this here or in the engineering forums. Since it's mainly math/theory I figured here would be more appropriate. Feel free to move it if it doesn't belong here. All relevant info etc. is in the picture, thanks.

Homework Equations


asd.png


The Attempt at a Solution


Ok so my problem is, how do I move on with the proof from here?
Can you take the dot product between just the vector V=<Vx, Vy, Vz> and this whole big mess?
Yes. It shouldn't be hard since dot products between two same unit vectors is 1 and dot products between two non-same orthogonal unit vectors is 0.

Chet
 
I get the wrong result. My result becomes the whole thing added together. Since you multiply row by column, all of the i, j and k's in my dyad would be dotted by themselves.
 
Let's take a step backwards. Here is a test for you.

$$\vec{i}\centerdot \vec{i}\vec{i}=$$
$$\vec{i}\centerdot \vec{j}\vec{i}=$$
$$\vec{i}\centerdot \vec{k}\vec{i}=$$
$$\vec{i}\centerdot \vec{∇}\vec{v}=$$
In the last problem, evaluate the summation term-by-term.

Chet
 
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<br /> i * ii = (1)i = i<br />

<br /> i * ji = (0)i = 0<br />

<br /> i*ki = (0)i=0<br />

<br /> i * ∇V =&gt;<br />

<br /> ∇V =

(∂/∂x)Vx (ii) , (∂/∂x)Vy (ij) , (∂/∂x)Vz (ik)

(∂/∂y)Vx (ji) , (∂/∂y)Vy (jj) , (∂/∂y)Vz (jk)

(∂/∂z)Vx (ki) , (∂/∂z)Vy (kj) , (∂/∂z)Vz (kk)

<br /> i * ∇V = (1i + 0j + 0k) * ∇V =<br />

<br /> (∂/∂x)Vx (i*i)i + 0((∂/∂y)Vx (j*j)i + 0(∂/∂z)Vx (k*k)i + (∂/∂x)Vy (i*i)j + 0(∂/∂y)Vy (j*j)j + (0)(∂/∂z)Vy (k*k)j ... etc.<br />

<br /> = (∂/∂x)Vx i + 0(1)i +0(1)i + (∂/∂x)Vy(1) j + 0(1)j + 0(1)j ... etc

So it seems that the middle terms cancel in this case only because it is i dot delV, and not V dot delV, since V would have i j and k components, meaning no terms would be zero. Clearly I'm going completely off the rails somewhere but I can't seem to figure it out.
 
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Feodalherren said:
<br /> i * ii = (1)i = i<br />

<br /> i * ji = (0)i = 0<br />

<br /> i*ki = (0)i=0<br />

<br /> i * ∇V =&gt;<br />

<br /> ∇V =

(∂/∂x)Vx (ii) , (∂/∂x)Vy (ij) , (∂/∂x)Vz (ik)

(∂/∂y)Vx (ji) , (∂/∂y)Vy (jj) , (∂/∂y)Vz (jk)

(∂/∂z)Vx (ki) , (∂/∂z)Vy (kj) , (∂/∂z)Vz (kk)

No. This is supposed to be a summation:

$$\vec{∇}\vec{V}=\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial x}\vec{i}\vec{i}+\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial x}\vec{i}\vec{j}+\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial x}\vec{i}\vec{k}+\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial y}\vec{j}\vec{i}+\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial y}\vec{j}\vec{j}+\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial y}\vec{j}\vec{k}+\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial z}\vec{k}\vec{i}+\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial z}\vec{k}\vec{j}+\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial z}\vec{k}\vec{k}$$
<br /> i * ∇V = (1i + 0j + 0k) * ∇V =<br />

<br /> (∂/∂x)Vx (i*i)i + 0((∂/∂y)Vx (j*j)i + 0(∂/∂z)Vx (k*k)i + (∂/∂x)Vy (i*i)j + 0(∂/∂y)Vy (j*j)j + (0)(∂/∂z)Vy (k*k)j ... etc.<br />

<br /> = (∂/∂x)Vx i + 0(1)i +0(1)i + (∂/∂x)Vy(1) j + 0(1)j + 0(1)j ... etc

So it seems that the middle terms cancel in this case only because it is i dot delV, and not V dot delV, since V would have i j and k components, meaning no terms would be zero. Clearly I'm going completely off the rails somewhere but I can't seem to figure it out.
Don't be so hard on yourself. This is all correct. To summarize:

$$\vec{i}\centerdot \vec{∇}\vec{V}=\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial x}\vec{i}+\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial x}\vec{j}+\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial x}\vec{k}$$
Now for the next part of your test:
$$(v_x\vec{i})\centerdot \vec{∇}\vec{V}=$$
$$(v_y\vec{j})\centerdot \vec{∇}\vec{V}=$$
$$(v_z\vec{k})\centerdot \vec{∇}\vec{V}=$$
$$(v_x\vec{i}+v_y\vec{j}+v_z\vec{k})\centerdot \vec{∇}\vec{V}=$$
$$\vec{V}\centerdot \vec{∇}\vec{V}=$$
Make sure you collect coefficients of i, j, and k.

Chet
 
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$$\vec{∇}\vec{V}=\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial x}\vec{i}\vec{i}+\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial x}\vec{i}\vec{j}+\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial x}\vec{i}\vec{k}+\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial y}\vec{j}\vec{i}+\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial y}\vec{j}\vec{j}+\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial y}\vec{j}\vec{k}+\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial z}\vec{k}\vec{i}+\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial z}\vec{k}\vec{j}+\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial z}\vec{k}\vec{k}$$

then

$$(v_x\vec{i})\centerdot \vec{∇}\vec{V}=$$

$$V_x\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial x}(1)\vec{i}+V_x\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial x}(1)\vec{j}+V_x\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial x}(1)\vec{k}+V_x\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial y}(0)\vec{i}+V_x\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial y}(0)\vec{j}+V_x\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial y}(0)\vec{k}+V_x\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial z}(0)\vec{i}+\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial z}(0)\vec{j}+V_x\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial z}(0)\vec{k}$$

$$=V_x\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial x}(1)\vec{i}+V_x\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial x}(1)\vec{j}+V_x\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial x}(1)\vec{k}$$

Hmm yeah I can already tell that's wrong. I guess I at least identified my problem now. I don't know how to do the dot product if I don't have two vectors of the same size. I don't know how to take the dot product of a vector with a tensor.

I really appreciate your help by the way, thank you Sir!
 
Feodalherren said:
$$\vec{∇}\vec{V}=\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial x}\vec{i}\vec{i}+\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial x}\vec{i}\vec{j}+\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial x}\vec{i}\vec{k}+\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial y}\vec{j}\vec{i}+\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial y}\vec{j}\vec{j}+\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial y}\vec{j}\vec{k}+\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial z}\vec{k}\vec{i}+\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial z}\vec{k}\vec{j}+\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial z}\vec{k}\vec{k}$$

then

$$(v_x\vec{i})\centerdot \vec{∇}\vec{V}=$$

$$V_x\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial x}(1)\vec{i}+V_x\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial x}(1)\vec{j}+V_x\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial x}(1)\vec{k}+V_x\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial y}(0)\vec{i}+V_x\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial y}(0)\vec{j}+V_x\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial y}(0)\vec{k}+V_x\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial z}(0)\vec{i}+\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial z}(0)\vec{j}+V_x\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial z}(0)\vec{k}$$

$$=V_x\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial x}(1)\vec{i}+V_x\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial x}(1)\vec{j}+V_x\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial x}(1)\vec{k}$$

Hmm yeah I can already tell that's wrong. I guess I at least identified my problem now. I don't know how to do the dot product if I don't have two vectors of the same size. I don't know how to take the dot product of a vector with a tensor.

I really appreciate your help by the way, thank you Sir!
I don't know why you think you got it wrong. You got it right. Just get rid of those (1)'s. 1 times (anything) is equal to (anything).

As far as the dot product of a vector with a tensor is concerned, that is a new vector. Dotting a vector with a tensor just maps the vector into a new vector.

With this information, you should be able to do the other problems I posed in post #6.

Chet
 
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$$(v_x\vec{i})\centerdot \vec{∇}\vec{V}=$$

$$V_x\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial x}(1)\vec{i}+V_x\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial x}(1)\vec{j}+V_x\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial x}(1)\vec{k}+V_x\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial y}(0)\vec{i}+V_x\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial y}(0)\vec{j}+V_x\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial y}(0)\vec{k}+V_x\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial z}(0)\vec{i}+\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial z}(0)\vec{j}+V_x\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial z}(0)\vec{k}$$

$$=V_x\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial x}(1)\vec{i}+V_x\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial x}(1)\vec{j}+V_x\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial x}(1)\vec{k}$$

then similarly

$$(V_y\vec{j})\centerdot \vec{∇}\vec{V}=$$

$$=V_y\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial y}\vec{i}+V_y\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial y}\vec{j}+V_y\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial y}\vec{k}$$

and$$(V_z\vec{k})\centerdot \vec{∇}\vec{V}=$$

$$=V_z\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial z}\vec{i}+V_z\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial z}\vec{j}+V_z\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial z}\vec{k}$$

Hmm okay. Now if I factor each term I can get

$$V_x[\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial x}\vec{i}+\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial x}\vec{j}+\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial x}\vec{k} ]+ $$
$$V_y[\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial y}\vec{i}+\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial y}\vec{j}+\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial y}\vec{k}] + $$
$$V_z[\frac{\partial V_x}{\partial z}\vec{i}+\frac{\partial V_y}{\partial z}\vec{j}+\frac{\partial V_z}{\partial z}\vec{k}]$$

$$=V_x[\vec{∇}V_x] + V_y[\vec{∇}V_y] + V_z[\vec{∇} V_z]=$$

And I'm stuck again. I don't see how I can get the dot product to the right place and the V vector out of this again.
 
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  • #10
Oh wait I see I factored it wrong. Give me a minute
 
  • #11
Okay I solved it. Thanks! :)
 
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  • #12
You did it correctly, but the way you expressed the final result is not what I had in mind. What I was looking for was expressing the final result in the form $$\vec{V}\centerdot ∇ \vec{V}=(\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ )\vec{i}+(\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ )\vec{j}+(\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ )\vec{k}$$
Just fill in what goes in the parentheses.

Chet
 
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  • #13
Yes Sir, I did that on paper when I re-worked it. I was just too lazy to write it all out on here. Thanks :)
 
  • #14
Feodalherren said:
Yes Sir, I did that on paper when I re-worked it. I was just too lazy to write it all out on here. Thanks :)
Well, what this gives you is the acceleration vector of the fluid at each point in the fluid (in cases where the flow is at steady state).

Chet
 
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