How Does 31.7 Equal 1.6% in This Math Problem?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the mathematical relationship between the division of 1428 by 45, which results in 31.7, and its equivalence to 1.6%. To establish that 31.7 equals 1.6%, it must be calculated as 1.6% of approximately 1980. The participants emphasize the necessity of identifying the base amount (1980) to understand this percentage relationship clearly.

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Tripp1
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I have the anwser I just don't know how they got it.

Here is the problem:

1428 divided by 45 = 31.7 which also equals out to 1.6%

I can't figure out how it equals 1.6%
 
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Tripp said:
I have the anwser I just don't know how they got it.

Here is the problem:

1428 divided by 45 = 31.7 which also equals out to 1.6%

I can't figure out how it equals 1.6%

Hi Tripp! Welcome to MHB. :)

A percentage is always of some amount.
For 31.7 to be equal to 1.6%, it needs to be 1.6% of about 1980.
Is a number like 1980 given somewhere?
Otherwise I can't figure it out either.
 

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