How Does Mass Increase as Electrons Approach Light Speed in a Synchrotron?

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The discussion focuses on how mass increases as electrons approach light speed in a synchrotron, particularly addressing the concept of "one part in 8,000,000." Participants analyze the equations governing momentum and velocity, using Taylor and binomial expansions to approximate values. They clarify the relationship between velocity (v) and the speed of light (c), emphasizing that v differs from c by a minuscule fraction. The conversation highlights the importance of dimensional consistency in equations and the relevance of series expansions in understanding relativistic effects. Overall, the thread delves into the mathematical intricacies of relativistic physics as they pertain to high-speed electrons.
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Homework Statement


Fast electrons in synchrotron approach the speed of light:
Snap2.jpg

I don't get to the "one part in 8,000,000"

Homework Equations


Momentum: ##~P=mv=\frac{m_0v}{\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}}##

The Attempt at a Solution


$$\frac{v^2}{c^2}=1-\frac{1}{4E6}~\rightarrow~\frac{v}{c}=\frac{1}{1.000,000,5}$$
$$\rightarrow~v=\frac{c}{1.000,000,5}$$
$$c-v=c\left( 1-\frac{1}{1.000,000,5} \right) \neq c\cdot \frac{1}{8,000,000}$$
 
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1 part in 8 million is 1/8000000. But since it differs from 1 by this much, you have 7,999,999 / 8,000,000
 
Karol said:
$$\frac{v^2}{c^2}=1-\frac{1}{4E6}~\rightarrow~\frac{v}{c}=\frac{1}{1.000,000,5}$$
How do you get that? What is the Taylor expansion of (1-¼10-6)?
 
haruspex said:
How do you get that?
I executed ##~1-\frac{1}{4E6}##
What do you mean by (1-¼1016)? maybe you made a mistake, do you mean the Taylor expansion for ##~\sqrt{1-\frac{1}{4E6}}~##?
Taylor expansion:
$$f(x+h)=f(x)+hf'(x)+\frac{h^2}{2!}f''(x)+...$$
It has a function f(x) in it and i don't, i just have numbers, so how will i take derivative?
 
Yes, sorry, the - in the exponent was a typo. Should have been (1-¼10-6)½. And I meant binomial expansion. Other than that...
 
I am not sure why you need Taylor Series to approximate it. You could do this: let r = (v/c). Then we have (1 - r^2) = (1 + r)(1 - r).
Since v differs from c by 1 part in 8 million, then (1 + r) is approx 2 {since r is approx 1}, and (1 - r) is 1 divided by 8 million. So you have: (1 - r^2) is approx 2/(8 million) = 1/(4 million).
The square root of that is 1/2000. You could run this in reverse, if you know the 2000 and want to determine the 1/(8 million).
 
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I've seen the Taylor polynomial approximation used in quantum mechanics if there's a need to include the relativistic "mass increase" in the form of a lowest order perturbation in the Schrödinger equation, but I'm not sure why that is done here.
 
This is all based on, for small ##\epsilon##:

##\frac{1}{1 \pm \epsilon} = 1 \mp \epsilon##

And

##(1 + \epsilon)^2 = 1 + 2\epsilon##

In particular, if ##\frac{v}{c} = 1- \epsilon##, then ##\frac{v^2}{c^2} = 1- 2\epsilon## and ##1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2} = 2\epsilon##
 
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Karol said:

Homework Statement


Fast electrons in synchrotron approach the speed of light:
View attachment 204548
I don't get to the "one part in 8,000,000"

The positive solution of ##1/\sqrt{1-\beta^2} = 2000## is ##\beta = \sqrt{3,999,999}/2000##, so ##1 - \beta = 0.1250 \times 10^{-6} = 1/8,000,000.##

Actually, that last should be ##1/7,999,999.500000031250##, approximately
 
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  • #10
haruspex said:
And I meant binomial expansion
But in binomial expansion the exponents are positive integers
scottdave said:
and (1 - r) is 1 divided by 8 million.
Why?
$$c-v=\frac{1}{8E6},~1-r=1-\frac{v}{c}=\frac{c-v}{c}=\frac{1/8E6}{c}=\frac{1}{c\cdot 8E6}$$
PeroK said:
This is all based on, for small ##\epsilon##:

##\frac{1}{1 \pm \epsilon} = 1 \mp \epsilon##

And

##(1 + \epsilon)^2 = 1 + 2\epsilon##

In particular, if ##\frac{v}{c} = 1- \epsilon##, then ##\frac{v^2}{c^2} = 1- 2\epsilon## and ##1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2} = 2\epsilon##
But you don't use ##\frac{1}{1 \pm \epsilon} = 1 \mp \epsilon##, you logically and correctly say ##\frac{v}{c} = 1- \epsilon##
$$\frac{v}{c} = 1- \epsilon~\rightarrow~\frac{v^2}{c^2}=(1-\epsilon)^2=1-2\epsilon+\epsilon^2 \approx 1-2\epsilon$$
$$1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}=\frac{1}{4E6}=2\epsilon~\rightarrow~\epsilon=\frac{1}{8E6}$$
$$\frac{v}{c}=1-\frac{1}{8E6},~~c-v=\frac{c}{8E8}$$
 
  • #11
Karol said:
But in binomial expansion the exponents are positive integers
Why?
$$c-v=\frac{1}{8E6},~1-r=1-\frac{v}{c}=\frac{c-v}{c}=\frac{1/8E6}{c}=\frac{1}{c\cdot 8E6}$$

But you don't use ##\frac{1}{1 \pm \epsilon} = 1 \mp \epsilon##, you logically and correctly say ##\frac{v}{c} = 1- \epsilon##
$$\frac{v}{c} = 1- \epsilon~\rightarrow~\frac{v^2}{c^2}=(1-\epsilon)^2=1-2\epsilon+\epsilon^2 \approx 1-2\epsilon$$
$$1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}=\frac{1}{4E6}=2\epsilon~\rightarrow~\epsilon=\frac{1}{8E6}$$
$$\frac{v}{c}=1-\frac{1}{8E6},~~c-v=\frac{c}{8E8}$$
That looks right to me.
 
  • #12
Karol said:
Why?
$$c-v=\frac{1}{8E6},~1-r=1-\frac{v}{c}=\frac{c-v}{c}=\frac{1/8E6}{c}=\frac{1}{c\cdot 8E6}$$
You should notice something that when you see: c - v = 1/(8 E6). On the left side, you have speed (Length/Time), and the right side is dimensionless. So something didn't get put in, correctly. Now with this: c-v = c/(8 E6), both sides have the same dimensions.
 
  • #13
c-v = c/(8 E6) has correct dimensions and, as PeroK said, is probably the correct answer but how do you explain "v differs from c by one part in 8,000,000"?
I expected to see c-v=1/8,000,000
 
  • #14
Karol said:
c-v = c/(8 E6) has correct dimensions and, as PeroK said, is probably the correct answer but how do you explain "v differs from c by one part in 8,000,000"?
I expected to see c-v=1/8,000,000
Well, you expected wrong. That equation is dimensionally nonsense.
 
  • #15
Ray Vickson said:
The positive solution of ##1/\sqrt{1-\beta^2} = 2000## is ##\beta = \sqrt{3,999,999}/2000##
How did you get that?
$$\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\beta^2}}=2000~\rightarrow~\sqrt{1-\beta^2}=0.0005~\rightarrow~\beta=0.999,999,875$$
 
  • #16
Karol said:
How did you get that?
$$\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\beta^2}}=2000~\rightarrow~\sqrt{1-\beta^2}=0.0005~\rightarrow~\beta=0.999,999,875$$
Which differs from 1 by one part in 8 million.
 
  • #17
scottdave said:
not sure why you need Taylor Series to approximate it.
Please see my correction in post #5.
 
  • #18
Karol said:
How did you get that?
$$\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\beta^2}}=2000~\rightarrow~\sqrt{1-\beta^2}=0.0005~\rightarrow~\beta=0.999,999,875$$
I am lazy in my old age, so I just let Maple solve the problem for me, and then evaluated the solution using 20-digit numerical computations.

Of course, the solution of ##1/\sqrt{1-\beta^2} = \gamma## is ##\beta = \sqrt{1-\gamma^{-2}},## which expands out as
$$\beta = 1 -\frac{1}{2 \gamma^2} -\frac{1}{8 \gamma^4} - \cdots,$$
by applying the series expansion for ##\sqrt{1-x}## for small ##x = 1/\gamma^2.## If you keep only the ##1/\gamma^2## term you get exactly 1 part in 8,000,000 because we are using ##\gamma = 2000.##
 
  • #19
What if it said something like v differed from c by 1%, would it be clear that v = 0.99c ?
Instead of 1% they could say v differs from c by 1 part in 100. It means the same thing.

So instead of 1 part in 8million difference, they could say differ by 0.0000125%
 
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  • #20
Thank you very much scottdave, PeroK, Ray, Hllbert2 and Haruspex
 
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