How Does the Dirac Delta Function Apply to Trigonometric Integrals?

Pual Black
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Homework Statement


hi
i have to find the result of
##\int_{0}^{\pi}[\delta(cos\theta-1)+ \delta(cos\theta+1)]sin\theta d\theta##

Homework Equations


i know from Dirac Delta Function that
##\int \delta(x-a)dx=1##
if the region includes x=a and zero otherwise

The Attempt at a Solution


first i make the substitution
let ##\cos\theta=x##
then ##\sin\theta d\theta=-dx##
at ##\theta=0 \rightarrow x=1##
at ##\theta=\pi \rightarrow x=-1##

##\int_{1}^{-1}[\delta(x-1)+ \delta(x+1)](-dx)##

##\int_{-1}^{1}[\delta(x-1)+ \delta(x+1)](dx)##

##\int_{-1}^{1}\delta(x-1)dx+ \int_{-1}^{1}\delta(x+1)(dx)##

so the first term is equal one but what about the second term. I know that the result must be 2
 
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In ##\delta(x-a) = \delta(x+1)##, what is the value of ##a##?
 
DrClaude said:
In ##\delta(x-a) = \delta(x+1)##, what is the value of ##a##?
In L.H.S
X must be equal a. Else dirac delta will be zero.
R.H.S
X=-1
Or a=-1
Maybe I didn't understand your question.
 
Pual Black said:
a=-1
Correct. So what is the value of the corresponding integral?
 
Pual Black said:
##\int_{-1}^{1}\delta(x-1)dx+ \int_{-1}^{1}\delta(x+1)(dx)##

so the first term is equal one

Why? I think that the first term is undefined. Something strange is happening at ##x = 1##, so write it as the limit,
$$\int_{-1}^{1} \delta \left( x -1 \right) dx = \lim_{ a \to 1} \int_{-1}^{a} \delta \left( x -1 \right) dx.$$
This two-sided limit, however, does not exist, because
$$\lim_{ a \to 1^-} \int_{-1}^{a} \delta \left( x -1 \right) dx = 0,$$
and
$$\lim_{ a \to 1^+} \int_{-1}^{a} \delta \left( x -1 \right) dx = 1.$$
In the first one-sided limit, ##x = 1## is not in the region of integration, while in the second one-sided limit, ##x = 1## is in the region of integration. Since the two one-sided limits are not equal, the two-sided limit does not exist.

I suppose that you mean the second one-sided limit, i.e., that
$$\int_{-1}^{1} \delta \left( x -1 \right) dx = \lim_{ a \to 1^+} \int_{-1}^{a} \delta \left( x -1 \right) dx.$$
 
DrClaude said:
Correct. So what is the value of the corresponding integral?
Since a=-1 is in the range of integral. The integral is equal one?
 
Pual Black said:

Homework Statement


hi
i have to find the result of
##\int_{0}^{\pi}[\delta(cos\theta-1)+ \delta(cos\theta+1)]sin\theta d\theta##

Homework Equations


i know from Dirac Delta Function that
##\int \delta(x-a)dx=1##
if the region includes x=a and zero otherwise

The Attempt at a Solution


first i make the substitution
let ##\cos\theta=x##
then ##\sin\theta d\theta=-dx##
at ##\theta=0 \rightarrow x=1##
at ##\theta=\pi \rightarrow x=-1##

##\int_{1}^{-1}[\delta(x-1)+ \delta(x+1)](-dx)##

##\int_{-1}^{1}[\delta(x-1)+ \delta(x+1)](dx)##

##\int_{-1}^{1}\delta(x-1)dx+ \int_{-1}^{1}\delta(x+1)(dx)##

so the first term is equal one but what about the second term. I know that the result must be 2

How do you know the result must be 2? You are integrating through only half of a ##\delta## function. Some people would say that the result is not defined at all, others would say the final result should be 1 (not the 2 that you give). We could also argue that for ##a > -1## we have ##\int_{-1}^a \delta(x+1) \, dx = 0.15865## or ##= 0.84134## (for both of which there exist perfectly good arguments/justifications). However, I would personally take ##\int_{-1}^a \delta(x+1) \, dx = 1/2##, for more-or-less good reasons.
 
Last edited:
Ray Vickson said:
How do you know the result must be 2? You are integrating through only half of a ##\delta## function. Some people would say that the result is not defined at all, others would say the final result should be 1 (not the 2 that you give). We could also argue that for ##a > -1## we have ##\int_{-1}^a \delta(x+1) \, dx = 0.15865## or ##= 0.84134## (for both of which there exist perfectly good arguments/justifications). However, I would personally take ##\int_{-1}^a \delta(x+1) \, dx = 1##, for more-or-less good reasons.

The reason why i think the result is 2 because of a problem in Jackson Electrodynamic.
I have now uploaded a pdf file and at page 1 you can see that the integral of dirac delta should be 2.
 

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