How Does the Normalization of a Wave Function Work?

sameh1
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hello

i attached my question if i can get some help

i think that there is another way to solve this problem
 

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Your algebra is faulty.

\int_0^{2\pi}sin\phi d\phi=0

Over a complete cycle for a sine (or cosine) you have as much positive area "under the curve" as you have negative.
 
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