- #1
LeeJeffries
- 17
- 0
Hi all, very new here, sorry if this is in the wrong place, my question is related to gravity/spacetime warping and all that good stuff, so maybe general relativity
My knowledge only goes as far as 5 TTC lecture series on particle physics, quantum mechanics etc, and my maths only goes as far as A level, so the answers to most of my questions are probably in the deeper matrix calcs and wave functions and all that good stuff, so please be easy on me!
As far as I can tell there is a repeating throughout of this circle -> sphere -> circle -> sphere nature of objects, and then there is the bending of spacetime in order for planets to move in this "straight line" ditch, but if PI is irrational, how is the universe not stuck at the first time it has to calculate this infinite ratio? I mean we "use it" but we round it or use close fractions to represent it
I notice Planck's used a constant to basically kick the whole thing off which got round infinities in one sense, but this PI lark is confusing me
Probably an easy answer
Thanks
Lee
My knowledge only goes as far as 5 TTC lecture series on particle physics, quantum mechanics etc, and my maths only goes as far as A level, so the answers to most of my questions are probably in the deeper matrix calcs and wave functions and all that good stuff, so please be easy on me!
As far as I can tell there is a repeating throughout of this circle -> sphere -> circle -> sphere nature of objects, and then there is the bending of spacetime in order for planets to move in this "straight line" ditch, but if PI is irrational, how is the universe not stuck at the first time it has to calculate this infinite ratio? I mean we "use it" but we round it or use close fractions to represent it
I notice Planck's used a constant to basically kick the whole thing off which got round infinities in one sense, but this PI lark is confusing me
Probably an easy answer
Thanks
Lee