How Does xH Equal yH Imply x⁻¹y Belongs to H in Group Theory?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a group theory problem involving subgroups and the equivalence of cosets. The original poster seeks to prove the relationship between cosets and elements of a subgroup, specifically how the equality of cosets implies a certain condition on the elements involved.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of the equality of cosets, with the original poster attempting to prove that if xH = yH, then x⁻¹y belongs to H. Some participants question the assumption that x and y must belong to H based on a counterexample involving integers and a subgroup.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various interpretations being explored. Some participants have provided guidance on how to approach the proof, while others have raised questions about the validity of certain assumptions. There is no explicit consensus yet, but productive lines of reasoning are being developed.

Contextual Notes

Participants are considering the implications of subgroup properties and the definitions of cosets. There is a noted counterexample that challenges the assumption that elements must belong to the subgroup when their cosets are equal.

gottfried
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Homework Statement


Let H be a subgroup of G
Prove xH=yH ⇔ x-1.y[itex]\in[/itex]H


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


If x.H = y.H then x,y[itex]\in[/itex]H
since H is a subgroup x-1,y-1[itex]\in[/itex]H
and the closure of H means x-1.y[itex]\in[/itex]H

Proving the reverse is my problem despite the fact that I'm sure is very easy but i just can't see it.

What I want to do is show that x-1.y[itex]\in[/itex]H implies x,y[itex]\in[/itex]H
In which case x.H=H=y.H.

How is the best way to show this?
 
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If [itex]xH = yH[/itex] then [itex]x,y \in H[/itex]. This is not true. Consider the integers. And conside the sub group [itex]5Z[/itex]. Now, [itex]3+5Z = 8+5Z[/itex] but neither 8 nor 3 is in [itex]5Z[/itex]. So, if [itex]xH=yH[/itex] then for every [itex]h\in H[/itex] there is a [itex]h' \in H[/itex] with [itex]xh=yh'[/itex]. Now, use that fact to prove this direction.

Try to do something similar for the other direction. You know that there is some [itex]h \in H[/itex] with [itex]y = xh[/itex], see what you can make of that.
 
Thanks.

So we know that x=y.h for some h[itex]\in[/itex]H
therefore e=x-1.y.h
e.h-1= x-1.y
Therefore x-1.y[itex]\in[/itex]H since h-1[itex]\in[/itex]H

So the reverse could be

x-1.y=h[itex]\in[/itex]H
therefore y=x.h and this tells us xH=yH by the theorem that xH=yH ⇔ x=y.h for some h[itex]\in[/itex]H
 
yes, that seems correct to me.
 
Thanks for the help
 

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