How is Mechanical Energy Conserved in a Gravitational System?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on deriving the conservation of mechanical energy in a gravitational system, specifically for a point particle influenced by gravity. The derivation begins with Newton's second law and involves forming a dot product with velocity, followed by integration over time. The left side of the equation represents gravitational potential energy changes, while the right side reflects changes in kinetic energy. Ultimately, the equation shows that the total mechanical energy, represented by gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy, remains constant throughout the motion. This confirms that mechanical energy is conserved in a gravitational system.
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I am in grade 12 physics, and i have to practice equation proofs. I am currently studying work, kinetic energy, springs, and potential energy (gravity and elastic).

Does anyone have a good proof?
 
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Proof of what?
Your question is much too vague..
 
Sorry, i mean proving an energy-related equation.
 
Which of them?
Specifics, please.
 
i know its a simple equation, but i suck at proofs.

how about the general equation for gravitational potential energy?
 
Ok, I'll derive the conservation of mechanical energy for you, in the case of a point particle under the influence of the force of gravity.
I write Newton's 2.law in vector form:
-mg\vec{j}=m\vec{a}
where \vec{a}=\frac{d^{2}\vec{x}}{dt^{2}} is the acceleration, and
\vec{x}(t)=x(t)\vec{i}+y(t)\vec{j}
and the velocity is given by:
\vec{v}=\frac{d\vec{x}}{dt}
We also have:
\vec{a}=\frac{d\vec{v}}{dt}
1. Form the dot product
between \vec{v} and Newton's 2.law:
-mg\frac{dy}{dt}=m\frac{d\vec{v}}{dt}\cdot\vec{v}
2. Integrate this equation between 2 arbtriray points of time:
\int_{t_{0}}^{t_{1}}-mg\frac{dy}{dt}dt=\int_{t_{0}}^{t_{1}}m\frac{d\vec{v}}{dt}\cdot\vec{v}dt
3. The left-hand side is easy to compute:
\int_{t_{0}}^{t_{1}}-mg\frac{dy}{dt}dt=-mgy(t_{1})+mgy(t_{0})
4. We note the identity:
\frac{d\vec{v}}{dt}\cdot\vec{v}=\frac{d}{dt}(\frac{\vec{v}^{2}}{2})
where \vec{v}^{2}\equiv\vec{v}\cdot\vec{v}
5. Hence, the right-hand side in 2.) may be computed:
\int_{t_{0}}^{t_{1}}m\frac{d\vec{v}}{dt}\cdot\vec{v}dt=\frac{m}{2}\vec{v}^{2}(t_{1})-\frac{m}{2}\vec{v}^{2}(t_{0})
6. Collecting insights from 3. and 5., 2. may be rewritten as:
-mgy(t_{1})+mgy(t_{0})=\frac{m}{2}\vec{v}^{2}(t_{1})-\frac{m}{2}\vec{v}^{2}(t_{0})
7. Or, rearranging 6., we gain:
mgy(t_{1})+\frac{m}{2}\vec{v}^{2}(t_{1})=mgy(t_{0})+\frac{m}{2}\vec{v}^{2}(t_{0})
8. Or, noting that t_{1},t_{0} were ARBITRARY, every mechanical energy amount must remain the same at all times, so we get, by eliminating the specific time parameter:
mgy+\frac{m}{2}\vec{v}^{2}=K
where K is some constant for the whole motion.
That is, the mechanical energy is conserved for the particle
 
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