How is the generalization of Poisson's summation formula derived?

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The discussion focuses on the derivation of Poisson's summation formula, with participants expressing difficulty in understanding existing explanations. It highlights the use of Fourier series and the concept of orthonormal bases, specifically the functions e_k(x) = exp(2πikx), which form a complete set for function expansion. The inner product defined over specific intervals leads to the Kronecker delta, indicating orthogonality. Clarifications are sought regarding the nature of the functions involved and the interpretation of the delta function in the context of the integral. The conversation emphasizes the mathematical reasoning behind the formula's derivation and the conditions under which the integral evaluates to zero.
O.J.
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I am trying to understand the derivation of the Poisson's sum formula. Wikipedia's article is like crosswords to me. I checked mathworld's take on it. It looked simple, but it stated that the equation is derived from a more general result without stating or proving that general result. Here's the link. Can you please tell me how that generalisation is derived? thank u.
link:

http://mathworld.wolfram.com/PoissonSumFormula.html
 
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can you at least tell me under which category in mathematics does this topic lie so that I know what kind of book I'm searching for.?
 
It is very easy to derive the formula using Fourier series.
 
Consider the functions:

e_{k}(x) = \exp(2 \pi i k x)

For functions defined on the interval from n-1/2 to n + 1/2 with n some arbitrary integer, we define the inner product:

\langle f,g\rangle = \int_{n - 1/2}^{n +1/2} f(x)g^{*}(x)dx

Then we see that:

\langle e_k, e_r\rangle = \delta_{k,r}

where \delta_{k,r} is the Kronecker delta, which is zero if the indices are differet and 1 if the indices are equal. This means that the e_k form an orthonormal basis of functions. It can be shown that these functions also form a complete set which then implies that we can expand any function f as:


f(x) = \sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty} \langle f, e_{k}\rangle e_{k}(x)

[Note that this is completely analogous to how you can expand any vector in terms of basis vectors. If V is a 3d vector and ex, ey and ez are the unit vectors in the x, y, and z, directions, then V = <V,ex>ex +<V,ey> + <V,ez>ez. The inner products <V,ei> are, of course, the components of V in the ith direction.]

At x = n, we have

e_{k}(n)= \exp(2 \pi i k n) = 1,

so we have:


f(n) = \sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty} \langle f, e_k\rangle =<br /> \sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty}\int_{n-1/2}^{n+1/2} f(x) \exp(-2 \pi i k x) dx


Now, sum both sides over n from minus infinity to infinity:

\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}f(n) = \sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty}\int_{n-1/2}^{n+1/2} f(x) \exp(-2 \pi i k x) dx


Interchange the summations over n and k:

\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}f(n) = \sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty}\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\int_{n-1/2}^{n+1/2} f(x) \exp(-2 \pi i k x) dx


Summing over n yields

\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\int_{n-1/2}^{n+1/2}f(x)\exp(-2\pi i k x) dx=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)\exp(-2\pi i k x)dx=\hat{f}(k)

So, we have:

\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}f(n)=\sum_{k=-\infty}^{\infty}\hat{f}(k)
 
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Count thank you greatly but I cannot understand through the language of the proof can you use latex? please? :)
 
O.J. said:
Count thank you greatly but I cannot understand through the language of the proof can you use latex? please? :)


I've edited the posting.
 
"For functions defined on the interval from n-1/2 to n + 1/2 with n some arbitrary integer, we define the inner product:

LaTeX Code: \\langle f,g\\rangle = \\int_{n - 1/2}^{n +1/2} f(x)g^{*}(x)dx

Then we see that:

LaTeX Code: \\langle e_k, e_r\\rangle = \\delta_{k,r}

where LaTeX Code: \\delta_{k,r} is the Kronecker delta, which is zero if the indices are differet and 1 if the indices are equal. This means that the LaTeX Code: e_k form an orthonormal basis of functions. It can be shown that these functions also form a complete set which then implies that we can expand any function f as:"I did not understand something here, what is the nature of g(x)? is it an arbitrary function or not? And how exactly did you deduce tht it is a kronecker's delta? the product of the two exponentials indeed will be 1 if the indices are the same but how will it always be zero if they arent? it could be exp (2pix (k-n)) for example..
 
I do not understand how <ek , er> results in a delta function. Isnt the integrand going to be e^(2pi i k) * e^(-2pi i r). While this is equal to 1 if k = r, it isn't necessarily 0 if r isn't equal to k. How did u interpret it as delta? please clarify.
 
Equivalently, the integrand is e^[2 pi i (k-r)].

(k-r) is an integer, and the integral is done over a range of 1 (from n-½ to n+½). So the integral is done over an integer number of periods of the function e^[2 pi i (k-r)]. Therefore, the integral is zero.
 
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