"I should apologise?"
jreelawg said:
How about the words "International Waters"?
Blockades, either military, or economic, are recognised and legitimate under international law.
Blockade (provided sufficient humanitarian supplies are allowed) is a non-lethal method of warfare, to be used either instead of lethal force or in addition to it.
Maritime blockades
almost always take place in international waters … why do you expect Israel to follow a
different rule?
jreelawg said:
Is it right to blockade a country (not permitting entry) of Medical Supplies?
how about that one for starters.
jreelawg said:
You still haven't addressed the fact that Gaza, is, and has been, for months, deprived of medical supplies.
That's simply
not true.
Israel has been continuously allowing sufficient supplies of both medical aid (and food and power supplies) throughout the blockade.
Israel (
and Egypt, remember) has kept Gaza
short of these items … sometimes supplies have almost run out … but has never allowed them to actually run out.
And yes, a blockading country
is perfectly entitled to stop medical aid … it can insist that all imports (including medical aid) go through only when and where and in the amounts that it allows … provided of course that it does allow
enough.
Also …
drankin said:
Last night I watched a PBS interview with the Isreali-American Ambassador, and he said that they have been sending ambulances and medical supplies into Gaza in between strikes. Bringing Palistinian wounded into Isreal for treatment. Of course, this isn't on the news channels, it's doesn't exploit the choas needed for ratings.
… and Egypt has done the same.
jreelawg said:
I never tried to deny the existence of any racism, I only think that the term anti-semitism only applying to certain semites and not others doesn't make sense. I demand you say your sorry for accusing me of racism for simply posting a definition of a word from the dictionary.
"I should apologise?"
I did not actually accuse you of racism … I accused you of helping to deny the existence of anti-semitism as a form of racism …
tiny-tim said:
To say "both sides are semites" (meaning both Arabs and Jews) is to deny the existence of anti-semitism as a form of racism.
tiny-tim said:
You're still doing it …
insisting on a general definition of "semite" so as to help deny the existence of anti-semitism as a form of racism
And my accusation was
not "for simply posting a definition of a word from the dictionary" …
it was for posting a definition of a word ("semite")
when nobody had used it
while not posting a definition of the word
which had been used ("anti-semitic"), which would have completely demolished your argument.
"anti-semitism" (and "anti-semitic") has
always only referred to Jews (and still does) … "semite" is a later word whose meaning has broadened …
this is an tactic of anti-semitic racists who, when accused of anti-semitism, re-define it to include all "descendants of Shem", thereby including the Ishmaelites who of course are the modern Arabs, so that they can say "Well, I'm certainly not anti-Arab, so by definition I can't be anti-semitic".
"I should apologise?"
