If f(a)=g(a) and f'(x)>g'(x) for all x, use MVT to prove f(x)>g(x)

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1. Homework Statement
Give a graphical argument that if f(a)=g(a) and f'(x)>g'(x) for all x>a, then f(x)>g(x) for all x>a. Use the Mean Value Theorem to prove it.


2. Homework Equations



3. The Attempt at a Solution
I have sketched a graphical argument to show that f(x)>g(x). This is what I got:

Let h(x) = f(x) - g(x).
Then h'(x) = f'(x) - g'(x) > 0 for any x > a.
Now apply the MVT on the interval [a, x].

So.. h'(c) = (h(x) - h(a))/(x -a)

And then
h'(c) =\frac{f(x) - f(a) - g(x) + g(a)}{x - a} > 0
h'(c) =f(x) - f(a) - g(x) + g(a) > 0
h'(c) =f(x) - f(a) > g(x) - g(a)
h'(c) =\frac{f(x) - f(a)}{x-a} > \frac{g(x) - g(a)}{x-a}
==> h'(c) = f(x) > g(x)
==> f(x) > f(x) for all x>a

But I feel like this is wrong?!
 
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NWeid1 said:
1. Homework Statement
Give a graphical argument that if f(a)=g(a) and f'(x)>g'(x) for all x>a, then f(x)>g(x) for all x>a. Use the Mean Value Theorem to prove it.


2. Homework Equations



3. The Attempt at a Solution
I have sketched a graphical argument to show that f(x)>g(x). This is what I got:

Let h(x) = f(x) - g(x).
Then h'(x) = f'(x) - g'(x) > 0 for any x > a.
Now apply the MVT on the interval [a, x].

So.. h'(c) = (h(x) - h(a))/(x -a)

And then
h'(c) =\frac{f(x) - f(a) - g(x) + g(a)}{x - a} > 0
h'(c) =f(x) - f(a) - g(x) + g(a) > 0
h'(c) =f(x) - f(a) > g(x) - g(a)
h'(c) =\frac{f(x) - f(a)}{x-a} > \frac{g(x) - g(a)}{x-a}
==> h'(c) = f(x) > g(x)
==> f(x) > f(x) for all x>a

But I feel like this is wrong?!
The equalities that all begin with h'(c)= look very wrong. They're saying that a single number h'(c) is equal to several different numbers. That clearly can't be true. I also don't see why you conclude that h'(c)>0.
 
Well, I know to set h(x) = f(x) - g(x) but I don't know where to go from there. lol
 
NWeid1 said:
Well, I know to set h(x) = f(x) - g(x) but I don't know where to go from there. lol
The good news is that that's the right way to start. :smile:

Can you tell me exactly what the MVT says about h on the interval [a,x]?
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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