Why is T = 1/f in Simple Harmonic Motion?

  • Thread starter Thread starter raja.ganguly
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Shm
AI Thread Summary
In simple harmonic motion, the relationship T = 1/f indicates that the period (T) is the inverse of frequency (f). An object in this motion experiences varying acceleration, leading to different distances covered over time within its amplitude. For example, if T is 10 seconds, the frequency f is 0.1 Hz, meaning one complete oscillation occurs every 10 seconds. Misunderstanding this relationship can lead to incorrect assumptions about equal distances covered in fractional oscillations. The discussion clarifies that frequency and amplitude are distinct concepts, emphasizing the importance of accurately interpreting their definitions.
raja.ganguly
Messages
7
Reaction score
0
An object undergoing simple harmonic motion will always have varying acceleration. That means for each unit of time passing by, different distances will be covered within the bounded amplitude. As an example suppose T= 10s. Therefore, f = 1/T = 0.1 Hz(1/10th of a wavelength). This in a way would be like using the unitary method as-
If time taken for 1 complete oscillation is 10 seconds, then,
Time taken for 1/ 10 oscillation will be 1 second. (Modifying frequency's definition)

which cannot be, since thinking of it in that way would mean the body is covering equal distances of 1/10th of an oscillation every second till one time period of 1 second.

How is this all to be correctly explained ?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hey, I just figured out the answer... :)
 
Looks like you are mixing frequency with amplitude.
 
No. wasn't mixing the two :p but I get what you mean and your logic. anyways, thanks :)
 
Thread 'Gauss' law seems to imply instantaneous electric field propagation'
Imagine a charged sphere at the origin connected through an open switch to a vertical grounded wire. We wish to find an expression for the horizontal component of the electric field at a distance ##\mathbf{r}## from the sphere as it discharges. By using the Lorenz gauge condition: $$\nabla \cdot \mathbf{A} + \frac{1}{c^2}\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial t}=0\tag{1}$$ we find the following retarded solutions to the Maxwell equations If we assume that...
Maxwell’s equations imply the following wave equation for the electric field $$\nabla^2\mathbf{E}-\frac{1}{c^2}\frac{\partial^2\mathbf{E}}{\partial t^2} = \frac{1}{\varepsilon_0}\nabla\rho+\mu_0\frac{\partial\mathbf J}{\partial t}.\tag{1}$$ I wonder if eqn.##(1)## can be split into the following transverse part $$\nabla^2\mathbf{E}_T-\frac{1}{c^2}\frac{\partial^2\mathbf{E}_T}{\partial t^2} = \mu_0\frac{\partial\mathbf{J}_T}{\partial t}\tag{2}$$ and longitudinal part...
Thread 'Recovering Hamilton's Equations from Poisson brackets'
The issue : Let me start by copying and pasting the relevant passage from the text, thanks to modern day methods of computing. The trouble is, in equation (4.79), it completely ignores the partial derivative of ##q_i## with respect to time, i.e. it puts ##\partial q_i/\partial t=0##. But ##q_i## is a dynamical variable of ##t##, or ##q_i(t)##. In the derivation of Hamilton's equations from the Hamiltonian, viz. ##H = p_i \dot q_i-L##, nowhere did we assume that ##\partial q_i/\partial...
Back
Top