Indefinite and definite integral of e^sin(x) dx

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the indefinite and definite integral of the function e^(sin(x)). It is established that there is no closed-form solution for the indefinite integral ∫e^(sin(x))dx. However, the definite integral from 0 to π can be approximated using special functions, specifically the modified Bessel function I_0(1) and the modified Struve function L_0(1). The approximate value of the definite integral is calculated as ∫_0^π e^(sin(x))dx ≈ 1.97630906368990.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of integral calculus, specifically techniques for evaluating definite integrals.
  • Familiarity with special functions, particularly the modified Bessel function and the modified Struve function.
  • Knowledge of contour integration methods for approximating integrals.
  • Basic understanding of series expansions and their applications in calculus.
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the properties and applications of the modified Bessel function I_0(x).
  • Explore the modified Struve function L_0(x) and its significance in integral calculus.
  • Study contour integration techniques for evaluating complex integrals.
  • Investigate series expansions of exponential functions and their convergence properties.
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of calculus, and researchers interested in advanced integral evaluation techniques and special functions.

Emmanuel_Euler
Messages
142
Reaction score
11
Look to this indefinite integral →∫e^(sin(x))dx
Antiderivative or integral could not be found.and impossible to solve.

Look to this definite integral
∫e^(sin(x))dx (Upper bound is π and Lower bound is zero)=??

my question is : can we find any solution for this integral (definite integral) ??
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: lurflurf
Physics news on Phys.org
There is no closed-form solution for the antiderivative, but we can still approximate the definite integral.
 
It may be possible to use contour integration to find an analytic value for \int_0^\pi e^{\sin x}\,dx.
 
Assume that we have a solution like that int(y dy)=int(e^sinx dx). It is clear we must find y^2/2=int(e^sinx dx). In order to equality, int[ln(y) dy]=int(sinx dx). Due to int(lny dy) is equal to y(lny-1); y(lny-1)=-cosx+c and y=[-cosx+c]/[lny-1]. We need to find y^2/2 therefore, y^2/2=[(cosx+c)/(lny-1)]^2/2. This is the solution of int(e^sinx dx) and we have a non-linear euation.
 
lets consider
$$\frac{1}{\pi}\int_0^\pi\!e^{\sin(x)}\,\mathrm{d}x$$
I flipped through some books and did not find much on that, but I did find that
$$\frac{1}{\pi}\int_0^\pi\!e^{\cos(x)}\,\mathrm{d}x=\operatorname{I}_0(1)$$
I is the modified Bessel function of the first kind.
Also we know that
$$\operatorname{I}_0(1)=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_0^\pi\!\cosh(\sin(x))\,\mathrm{d}x\\
\operatorname{I}_0(1)\sim1.26606587775201$$
http://people.math.sfu.ca/~cbm/aands/page_376.htm
and
$$\operatorname{L}_0(1)=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_0^\pi\!\sinh(\sin(x))\,\mathrm{d}x\\
\operatorname{L}_0(1)\sim0.710243185937891$$
L is the Modified Struve Function
http://people.math.sfu.ca/~cbm/aands/page_498.htm
so
$$\frac{1}{\pi}\int_0^\pi\!e^{\sin(x)}\,\mathrm{d}x=\operatorname{I}_0(1)+\operatorname{L}_0(1)\sim1.97630906368990$$
 
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: aheight
can you give me the name of the books please, because i need them and thank you so much for help
 
I found that in the famous Handbook of Mathematical Functions edited by M. Abramowitz and I. A. Stegun a "work for hire performed for the US Government" thus freely available.
For example here
http://people.math.sfu.ca/~cbm/aands/toc.htm
It is also of course available in print if you prefer.
 
thank you so much for help...
 
  • #10
By using the formulas

<br /> \sin(\alpha)\sin(\beta) = \frac{1}{2}\big(\cos(\alpha - \beta) - \cos(\alpha + \beta)\big)<br />
<br /> \sin(\alpha)\cos(\beta) = \frac{1}{2}\big(\sin(\alpha - \beta) + \sin(\alpha + \beta)\big)<br />

it is possible to write the powers (\sin(x))^n in a form where non-trivial powers do not appear. By using this approach we get a series that starts as

<br /> \int\limits_0^{\pi} e^{\sin(x)}dx = \pi + 2 + \frac{1}{2!}\frac{\pi}{2} + \frac{1}{3!}\frac{4}{3} + \frac{1}{4!}\frac{3\pi}{8} + \frac{1}{5!}\frac{16}{15} + \cdots<br />

It is unfortunate of course that it might be impossible to get a nice formula for these terms, but it's not obvious if that's the way it's going to be. It could be that there exists some theory for the coefficients in the formula for (\sin(x))^n.
 
  • #11
Just to add to my previous answer the actual formula so one does not have to follow the site

$$\displaystyle \int e^{\sin(x)} dx=I_0(1)x + \frac{\pi}{2}L_0(1) + 2\sum_{n=1}^{+\infty} \frac{I_n(1)}{n} \sin \left ( nx - \frac{n\pi}{2} \right ) $$

Another nice way of solving definite integral apart for simply stating its value through Struve and Bessel (which is the shortest possible known expression at the moment) goes like this:

First let us get rid of ##\sin(x)##, introducing ##u=\sin(x), du=\cos(x)dx## This leads to

$$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\pi} e^{\sin(x)} dx=2\int_{0}^{1} \frac{e^u}{\sqrt{1-u^2}} du$$

Notice that we have taken it twice from ##0## to ##\frac{\pi}{2}## as ##e^{\sin(x)}## is symmetrical.

Now we use expansion of ##e^u## reducing it all to the sum of integrals

$$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\pi} e^{\sin(x)} dx=2 \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \int_{0}^{1} \frac{u^k}{k!\sqrt{1-u^2}} du$$

Now

$$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{1} \frac{u^k}{k!\sqrt{1-u^2}} du= \frac{1}{k!}\frac{\sqrt{\pi}\Gamma(\frac{k+1}{2})}{2\Gamma(\frac{k}{2}+1)}$$

coming from the connection between Beta and Gamma function, making it all

$$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\pi} e^{\sin(x)} dx=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{\sqrt{\pi}\Gamma(\frac{k+1}{2})}{\Gamma(\frac{k}{2}+1)k!}$$

or in a split form

$$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\pi} e^{\sin(x)} dx=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{\pi}{4^n(n!)^2} + \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{2^{n+1}n!}{(2n+1)!(2n+1)!}$$

First 10 terms are giving 20 digit precision already.

I am happy with 4 terms 4 digit precision

$$\displaystyle \frac{328}{147} + \frac{2917 π}{2304} \approx 6.2087$$

Just to make the connection

$$\displaystyle \pi L_0(1)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{2^{n+1}n!}{(2n+1)!(2n+1)!}$$
$$\displaystyle \pi I_0(1)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{\pi}{4^n(n!)^2}$$
 
Last edited:
  • #12
alexpeter_pen said:
$$\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\pi} e^{\sin(x)} dx=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{\sqrt{\pi}\Gamma(\frac{k+1}{2})}{\Gamma(\frac{k}{2}+1)k!}$$

Yes, this is the same series whose first terms I wrote down with their more explicit values. Very nice, thanks.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
1K
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K