Integers n and m: Does the Sum of Sines Equal Zero?

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The discussion revolves around whether the expression involving the sine function equals zero for integers n and m and a positive number L. It is noted that when m equals n, the expression becomes undefined due to a zero denominator. For other values of n and m, the outcome depends on the specific values of L, n, and m. A numerical example is suggested to test the validity of the equation, indicating that the result varies based on L. The original poster is seeking to demonstrate that a wave function is properly normalized, which requires the expression to equal zero.
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If n and m are integers and L is a positive number, does this equal zero?

\frac{sin(\frac{n\pi}{L}-\frac{m\pi}{L})}{\frac{n\pi}{L}-\frac{m\pi}{L}}-\frac{sin(\frac{n\pi}{L}+\frac{m\pi}{L})}{\frac{n\pi}{L}+\frac{m\pi}{L}}
 
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if m=n, this expression is not defined because the first denominator is 0.

Otherwise, it depends on what L, m and n are.

If you want to know if your equation is valid for any n,m, L whatever, try a numerical counter-exemple: plug say L=1.3, m=1, n=4.
 
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Since sin(n*Pi) = 0 only when n is an integer, in my previous case, it depends on the value of L, correct?
 
Thanks. That's what I was afraid of. I am actually trying to show that a certain wave function is properly normalized and needed this to be 0 to have the correct answer. I'll move this discussion over to the physics subforum.
 
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