Integral of a concave function

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talolard
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Homework Statement





Let [tex]f:[0,2]\rightarrow[0,\infty)[/tex] be continuous and non negative. Assume thaqt for any [tex]x,y\in[0,2][/tex] and [tex]0<\lambda<1 f(\lambda x+(1-\lambda)y)\geq\lambda f(x)+(1-\lambda)f(y)[/tex]. Given that f(1)=1 prove

[tex]\int_{0}^{2}f(x)dx\geq1[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



I've sat for hours. I have zero inspiration. I need a gentle shove in the right direction please.



 
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I think i got it.
Define [tex]g(x):\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}[/tex] . Such that [tex]g(x)=\begin{cases}<br /> x & 0\leq x\leq1\\<br /> 2-x & 1<x<2\end{cases}[/tex].

Assume that for some [tex]x\in[0,2] g(x)>f(x)[/tex] . Then [tex]g(x)=x>f(x)=f(x1+\left(1-x\right)y)\geq xf(1)+\left(1-x\right)f(y)=g(x)[/tex] +Something positive (Not precise here with the domain).

Then [tex]g(x)\geq g(x)+\epsilon[/tex] a contradiction. Thus we have that for all [tex]x\in[0,2] f(x)\geq g(x)[/tex]

Then [tex]\int_{0}^{2}f(x)\geq\int_{0}^{2}f(x)=\int_{0}^{1}x+\int_{1}^{2}2-x=\frac{1}{2}+\left|2x-\frac{x^{2}}{2}\right|_{1}^{2}=\frac{1}{2}+4-2-2+\frac{1}{2}=1[/tex] Q.E.D.
 
I can't really figure out what your contradiction is all about. Did you draw a graph of g(x)? You know f(0)>=0 and f(1)=1. If you connect (0,f(0)) and (1,f(1)) with a line then your condition says the graph of f is above or on that line, right? Do you see how that proves f(x)>=g(x) on [0,1]? Can you translate the picture into a proof?