Integral of a concave function

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving an inequality involving the integral of a continuous, non-negative concave function defined on the interval [0, 2]. The specific problem requires demonstrating that the integral of the function is at least 1, given that the function takes the value 1 at x=1.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the properties of the function and its relationship to a piecewise linear function g(x). There are attempts to establish inequalities between f(x) and g(x) to facilitate the proof of the integral inequality.

Discussion Status

Some participants have proposed a potential approach involving the function g(x) and its graphical representation. There is an ongoing exploration of the implications of concavity and the conditions given in the problem. Questions remain about the clarity of certain arguments and the need for a more visual or graphical interpretation to solidify the reasoning.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of the function's behavior at specific points, particularly f(0) and f(1), and how these relate to the overall proof. There is an acknowledgment of the need for a clearer contradiction in the reasoning presented.

talolard
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Homework Statement





Let [tex]f:[0,2]\rightarrow[0,\infty)[/tex] be continuous and non negative. Assume thaqt for any [tex]x,y\in[0,2][/tex] and [tex]0<\lambda<1 f(\lambda x+(1-\lambda)y)\geq\lambda f(x)+(1-\lambda)f(y)[/tex]. Given that f(1)=1 prove

[tex]\int_{0}^{2}f(x)dx\geq1[/tex]

The Attempt at a Solution



I've sat for hours. I have zero inspiration. I need a gentle shove in the right direction please.



 
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Consider the function g(x)=x for x in [0,1] and g(x)=2-x for x in [1,2]. Can you show f(x)>=g(x)?
 
I think i got it.
Define [tex]g(x):\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}[/tex] . Such that [tex]g(x)=\begin{cases}<br /> x & 0\leq x\leq1\\<br /> 2-x & 1<x<2\end{cases}[/tex].

Assume that for some [tex]x\in[0,2] g(x)>f(x)[/tex] . Then [tex]g(x)=x>f(x)=f(x1+\left(1-x\right)y)\geq xf(1)+\left(1-x\right)f(y)=g(x)[/tex] +Something positive (Not precise here with the domain).

Then [tex]g(x)\geq g(x)+\epsilon[/tex] a contradiction. Thus we have that for all [tex]x\in[0,2] f(x)\geq g(x)[/tex]

Then [tex]\int_{0}^{2}f(x)\geq\int_{0}^{2}f(x)=\int_{0}^{1}x+\int_{1}^{2}2-x=\frac{1}{2}+\left|2x-\frac{x^{2}}{2}\right|_{1}^{2}=\frac{1}{2}+4-2-2+\frac{1}{2}=1[/tex] Q.E.D.
 
I can't really figure out what your contradiction is all about. Did you draw a graph of g(x)? You know f(0)>=0 and f(1)=1. If you connect (0,f(0)) and (1,f(1)) with a line then your condition says the graph of f is above or on that line, right? Do you see how that proves f(x)>=g(x) on [0,1]? Can you translate the picture into a proof?
 

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