Hi. So I'm trying to use Laplace transforms in inverting a particular s-function via the convolution formula.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I ended up with this terrifying-looking thing:

So distributing, I ended up with:

Evaluating the second integral poses no problem for me (although I think the integration will definitely be 'hairy'). I have a problem with the first integral though. How on earth do I integrate the dirac delta? Help! I am totally at a loss here. Or am I doing something wrong?

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# A Integral of Dirac function from 0 to a... value

Have something to add?

Draft saved
Draft deleted

Loading...

Similar Threads - Integral Dirac function | Date |
---|---|

I Lebesgue Integral of Dirac Delta "function" | Nov 17, 2017 |

Dirac delta function under integral? | Feb 24, 2011 |

Integral of dirac delta function at x=0 | Sep 19, 2010 |

Complex integral representation of Dirac delta function? | Dec 29, 2009 |

Integral Over a Sphere with dirac delta function | Aug 7, 2009 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**