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Main Question or Discussion Point
Hi. So I'm trying to use Laplace transforms in inverting a particular sfunction via the convolution formula.
I ended up with this terrifyinglooking thing:
So distributing, I ended up with:
Evaluating the second integral poses no problem for me (although I think the integration will definitely be 'hairy'). I have a problem with the first integral though. How on earth do I integrate the dirac delta? Help! I am totally at a loss here. Or am I doing something wrong?
I ended up with this terrifyinglooking thing:
So distributing, I ended up with:
Evaluating the second integral poses no problem for me (although I think the integration will definitely be 'hairy'). I have a problem with the first integral though. How on earth do I integrate the dirac delta? Help! I am totally at a loss here. Or am I doing something wrong?
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