Hi. So I'm trying to use Laplace transforms in inverting a particular s-function via the convolution formula. I ended up with this terrifying-looking thing: So distributing, I ended up with: Evaluating the second integral poses no problem for me (although I think the integration will definitely be 'hairy'). I have a problem with the first integral though. How on earth do I integrate the dirac delta? Help! I am totally at a loss here. Or am I doing something wrong?