Integral of f over the surface of a sphere (in spherical polar coordinates)

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the integral of the function f(r, φ, θ) = 3cos(θ) over the surface of a sphere with a radius of 5, using spherical polar coordinates. Participants explore the mathematical reasoning behind the integral's result and the implications of the function's properties.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents their calculation of the integral, arriving at a result of 0, and expresses uncertainty about this outcome despite verifying their work through subdivision of the surface.
  • Another participant explains the use of the area element dA in spherical coordinates and details their step-by-step calculation, which also leads to the conclusion that the integral equals 0.
  • A third participant agrees with the correctness of the calculations presented.
  • Another participant notes the anti-symmetric nature of the function, explaining that the integral over the sphere is zero due to the cancellation of contributions from diametrically opposite points on the sphere.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the result of the integral being 0, with some discussion about the reasoning behind this conclusion. However, there is no explicit consensus on the comfort level with the result, as one participant expresses discomfort despite the agreement on the calculations.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of notation differences between engineering and mathematics, which could lead to confusion regarding the variables used in spherical coordinates.

Who May Find This Useful

This discussion may be useful for individuals interested in integral calculus, particularly in the context of spherical coordinates and surface integrals, as well as those exploring properties of functions over symmetric domains.

sephiseraph
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I have a function f(r, [tex]\phi[/tex], [tex]\vartheta[/tex]) = 3cos[tex]\vartheta[/tex].

Evaluating the repeated integral of this function over the surface of a sphere, centered at the origin, with radius 5, I have come up with 0 as my result. I'm not sure if this is correct. I've double checked my calculations, and tried subdividing the surface S into smaller subsections and summing the integrals of each section, and I get the same result. Intuitively it makes some sense that the answer would be 0 since cos[tex]\var{theta}[/tex] takes on values either side of 0 for [tex]\vartheta[/tex] in the intervals [0, pi] and [pi, 2pi].

Still, for some reason I'm uncomfortable with this result. Can anybody shed some light on this?
 
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To find the repeated integral of f over the surface S with respect to dA, where dA is the limit of the small areas on S, I used the fact that [tex]dA = R^2 sin\theta \,d\phi \,d\theta[/tex].

From there I calculated:

[tex] \int \int_{S} f dA = \int^{\pi}_{0} \int^{2\pi}_{0} (3cos\theta 5^2 sin\theta) \, d\phi \, d\theta <br /> <br /> = \int^{\pi}_{0} \int^{2\pi}_{0} (75 cos\theta sin\theta) \, d\phi \, d\theta<br /> <br /> = \int^{\pi}_{0} [ 75 \phi cos\theta sin\theta ]^{2 \pi}_{0} \, d\theta <br /> <br /> = 150\pi \int^{\pi}_{0} cos\theta sin\theta \, d\theta<br /> <br /> = 150\pi [(1/2) sin^2\theta]^{\pi}_0[/tex]

... which of course equals 0 as [tex]sin\pi = sin0 = 0[/tex].
 
It looks correct to me.
 
For any point on the surface of the sphere, [itex](\phi, \theta)[/itex] (you are using "engineering" notation here: [itex]\phi[/itex] and [itex]\theta[/itex] are reversed from what would be in a mathematics text) the diametrically opposite point is [itex](2\pi- \phi, \pi- \theta)[/itex] and [itex]cos(\pi- \theta)= -cos(\theta)[/tex]. Your function is "anti-symmetric" so its integral over the entire surface of the sphere is 0. The integral over any region around a given point is canceled by the integral over its diametrically opposite point.[/itex]
 
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Thanks for your help.
 

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