Integral Question: Solve Int[ln(sinx)] dx

  • Thread starter Thread starter Marin
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Integral
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The integral of ln(sinx) from 0 to pi/2 cannot be solved using the technique of transitioning from real to complex numbers, as demonstrated by Marin's discussion. The application of the exponential function leads to an incorrect result due to the properties of logarithms in complex analysis. Specifically, ln(Im(e^(ix))) does not equal Im(ln(e^(ix))), which results in a discrepancy between the computed value (1/8*pi) and the actual value (-ln(2)*pi/2). This highlights the limitations of using complex exponentials for certain integrals.

PREREQUISITES
  • Complex analysis fundamentals
  • Properties of logarithmic functions in complex numbers
  • Integration techniques involving exponential functions
  • Understanding of definite integrals and their evaluations
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of logarithms in complex analysis
  • Learn advanced integration techniques involving complex variables
  • Explore the relationship between real and imaginary parts of complex functions
  • Investigate alternative methods for evaluating integrals of logarithmic functions
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of calculus, and anyone interested in advanced integration techniques and complex analysis will benefit from this discussion.

Marin
Messages
192
Reaction score
0
Hello everybody!

I have a question for you concerning the use of exponentials as an integrating technique :)

Here it is:

consider the integral: Int[a*e^(bx)*sin(cx)] dx - a very elegant solution is to go from R into C, considering sincx = Im{e(icx)} , so

Int[a*e^(bx)*sin(cx)] dx = Im{Int[a*e^(bx)*e(icx)] dx} which can be easily calculated :)

so far so good.

But when I apply this 'technique' to the following integral something goes wrong:

Int(from 0 to pi/2) [ln(sinx)] dx

considering sinx = Im(e^(ix)}, the integral gets to:

Im{Int(from 0 to pi/2) [lne^(ix)] dx} = Im{Int(from 0 to pi/2) [ix] dx} = Im{i/2*x^2}l(from 0 to pi/2)} = Im{i/8*pi^2} = 1/8*pi

Now this result does not correspond to the real one: -ln(2)*pi/2

and the question is, as you might guess, WHY and when can I use such a technique to make the calculations easier :) ?

with best regards, Marin
 
Physics news on Phys.org
It doesn't work because ln(Im(e^(ix))) is not equal to Im(ln(e^(ix))). Try x=pi/2. The first expression is 0, the second is pi/2.
 
Thanks, Dick!

I think I got it :) so one has to go the hard way
 

Similar threads

Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
3K
  • · Replies 105 ·
4
Replies
105
Views
11K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K