Integrate [itex]\int_0^1\frac{\sin(\pi x)}{1-x}dx[/itex]

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the integral \int_0^1\frac{\sin(\pi x)}{1-x}dx, which is situated within the context of calculus, specifically dealing with integration techniques and the properties of special functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore various methods to evaluate the integral, including the possibility of contour integration and power series expansion of the denominator. There is also mention of changing variables to simplify the integral.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants sharing their attempts and insights. Some have found success with power series expansions, while others express challenges with the complexity of the resulting formulas. There is a suggestion that numerical integration methods may also be effective.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note that the integral may not have an elementary antiderivative, which influences their approach to finding a solution. There is an ongoing exploration of assumptions related to the methods being discussed.

funcalys
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Homework Statement


\int_0^1\frac{\sin(\pi x)}{1-x}dx

Homework Equations


\int \frac{\sin (\pi x)}{1-x}=Si(\pi-\pi x)

The Attempt at a Solution


I was stuck on the above integral while solving an exercise, I found out earlier on Wolfram that this integral doesn't probably have an elementary antiderivative representation so I cannot just calculate it directly by Newton-Leibniz formula. Integration by parts is not very viable in this case also. Maybe this needs the notion of contour integration to be solved? Any idea guys?
 
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Have you tried expanding the denominator as a power series?
 
Yeah, looks like it yielded some positive results finally , thanks very much for your help.
 
Oh, I did expand the denominator as a power series and then integrate term by term by resulting series, but I can't proceed to the next step. The general formula for arbitrary k is too complicated for me.
 
Then stop with some finite power for an approximation.
 
funcalys said:
Oh, I did expand the denominator as a power series and then integrate term by term by resulting series, but I can't proceed to the next step. The general formula for arbitrary k is too complicated for me.

If you change variables to t = 1-x you will get the value of the integral as ##I = \text{Si}(\pi),## where
\text{Si}(x) = \int_0^x \frac{\sin(t)}{t} \, dt. You can very easily expand ##\sin(t)## in a power series and get a very straightforward series for ##\text{Si}(x)## in powers of x. That will give you a simple-enough series for I in powers of ##\pi##.
 
Thank HallsofIvy.
Ray Vickson said:
If you change variables to t = 1-x you will get the value of the integral as ##I = \text{Si}(\pi),## where
\text{Si}(x) = \int_0^x \frac{\sin(t)}{t} \, dt. You can very easily expand ##\sin(t)## in a power series and get a very straightforward series for ##\text{Si}(x)## in powers of x. That will give you a simple-enough series for I in powers of ##\pi##.
This seems like the most plausible way to handle that imo :biggrin:. Thanks.
 
funcalys said:
Thank HallsofIvy.

This seems like the most plausible way to handle that imo :biggrin:. Thanks.

Numerical integration methods such as Simpson's rule should work well also.
 

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