Integrating 1/(1+cosx) from -pi/2 to pi/2

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The integral of 1/(1+cosx) from -pi/2 to pi/2 can be approached by rewriting the integrand as (1-cosx)/sin^2 x. A suggestion was made to split the integral into two parts for easier calculation. The discussion highlighted that there is a quicker method using the substitution x = 2(x/2). Ultimately, the participants found the hint about splitting the integral helpful in solving the problem. The conversation concluded with a sense of accomplishment in resolving the integral.
Math9999

Homework Statement


Find the integral of 1/(1+cosx) dx from -pi/2 to pi/2.

Homework Equations


None.

The Attempt at a Solution


Here's my work:
1/(1+cosx)=(1-cosx)/((1+cosx)(1-cosx))=(1-cosx)/(1-cos^2 x)=(1-cosx)/sin^2 x
This is what I've got so far. But this doesn't seem to simplify the integrand.
 
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Math9999 said:

Homework Statement


Find the integral of 1/(1+cosx) dx from -pi/2 to pi/2.

Homework Equations


None.

The Attempt at a Solution


Here's my work:
1/(1+cosx)=(1-cosx)/((1+cosx)(1-cosx))=(1-cosx)/(1-cos^2 x)=(1-cosx)/sin^2 x
This is what I've got so far. But this doesn't seem to simplify the integrand.
That looks good so far. What about splitting up the integral into two now?
 
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Never mind. I got it. You gave me the big hint already, splitting it up.
 
Thank you so much! Merry Christmas!
 
Math9999 said:
Never mind. I got it. You gave me the big hint already, splitting it up.
There was a quicker way. Hint: ##x = 2(x/2)##.
 
Wow.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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