Integrating tan x ln x cos x to Solving Indefinite Integrals

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SUMMARY

The indefinite integral of the function tan x ln x cos x can be simplified to sin x ln x after substituting tan x = sin x / cos x. The correct approach to solve this integral involves using integration by parts, where f'(x) = sin(x) and g(x) = ln(x). The resulting antiderivative is -cos(x) ln(x) + Ci(x), where Ci(x) represents the Cosine Integral function. It is important to note that this solution is valid only for x > 0, as the integral is undefined at x = 0.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of trigonometric functions, specifically tan x, sin x, and cos x
  • Knowledge of logarithmic functions, particularly ln x
  • Familiarity with integration techniques, especially integration by parts
  • Basic comprehension of special functions, including the Cosine Integral Ci(x)
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the method of integration by parts in detail
  • Explore the properties and applications of the Cosine Integral function Ci(x)
  • Practice solving similar indefinite integrals involving trigonometric and logarithmic functions
  • Investigate the behavior of integrals at singular points, such as x = 0
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, calculus students, and anyone interested in advanced integration techniques and special functions will benefit from this discussion.

James889
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Hi,

Looking to integrate the indefinite integral:

\int tan~x\cdot ln~x\cdot cos~x

Since tan x = sin x/ cos x, this integral be written as \int sin~x\cdot ln~x

In that case i thought the answer was cot x. But that is wrong.

Do you need to use integration by parts on this one?
 
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I just tried to evaluate this integral in Mathematica, but this does not return an analytical solution... so I doubt there is one. But maybe someone else has an idea?
 
James889 said:
Hi,

Looking to integrate the indefinite integral:

\int tan~x\cdot ln~x\cdot cos~x

Since tan x = sin x/ cos x, this integral be written as \int sin~x\cdotln~x

In that case i thought the answer was cot x. But that is wrong.

Do you need to use integration by parts on this one?

The integral sounds so unco and tricky at the first glance. But later you'll find out that it is equivalent to \int sin~x\cdot ln~x\ dx after cancelling the cos(x) with that of tangant function. So letting f'(x) = sin(x) and g(x) = ln(x) and using integration by parts gives us -\cos \left( x \right) \ln \left( x \right) +{\it Ci} \left( x\right). Note that here we assume that x is greater than zero. otherwise the above antiderivative will get some complex term. At x=0, it is not defined.

Here Ci(x) is some kind of special funcion called Cosine Integral which is exactly the second part in the integration you are supposed to do.

AB
 

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