Integrating Trigonometric Functions with Irrational Exponents

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves evaluating the integral from 0 to π/2 of 1/(1 + (tan(x))^√2) dx, which falls under the subject area of calculus, specifically integration of trigonometric functions with irrational exponents.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts various substitutions and manipulations, including using partial fractions, but finds these approaches complicate the problem. Some participants question the feasibility of using series solutions, while others suggest exploring trigonometric identities as a potential avenue for simplification.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants sharing insights about the integral's properties and relationships between tan and cot functions. A notable identity is mentioned that relates the integral of tan and cot, which seems to provide a productive direction for the original poster.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of constraints regarding the current curriculum, as series solutions are not yet covered in the course. The original poster expresses uncertainty about the complexity of the problem and seeks guidance without requiring full solutions.

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Homework Statement


The integral from 0 to pi/2 of 1/(1 + (tanx)^sqrt2) dx.


Homework Equations


trig identities?


The Attempt at a Solution


I tried some substitutions but it just made the problem more complicated. I also multiplied by (tanx)^sqrt2 in the numerator and denominator in an attempt to solve it using partial fractions. That ended up with a complex solution which I know is wrong. If it matters I plugged it into my calculator and got about .785. Any nudge in the right direction would be great. Also, is there a way to use equations without having to type it all out?
 
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is series solution an option?
 
We're starting series in a few weeks I think so I'm pretty sure it's not an option. This is for BC Calc and the teacher said that we know how to do it but it will be challenging. My thought is some sort of trig identity but nothing seems to work out.
 
It's a rotten dirty trick question. The integral from 0 to pi/2 of 1/(1+tan(x)^b) is the same as the integral over the same interval of 1/(1+cot(x)^b). Where b is any number. Why? That's the trig identity. Now add them and divide by two.
 
Last edited:
wow, I knew there was a reason why my teacher smiled when she wrote this on the board. I wrote out the proof of it always equaling pi/4. I also would never have realized that from 0 to pi/2 the tan and cot have the same integral. Thank you so much.
 
yeah that's neat
 

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