vantz Messages 13 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Jan 23, 2011 #1 Why are the integration bounds from -pi/2 to pi/2 and not 0 to pi? Last edited: Jan 23, 2011
gneill Mentor Messages 20,989 Reaction score 2,934 Jan 23, 2011 #2 vantz said: Why are the integration bounds from -pi/2 to pi/2 and not 0 to pi? Because the angle is with respect to the positive y-axis.
vantz said: Why are the integration bounds from -pi/2 to pi/2 and not 0 to pi? Because the angle is with respect to the positive y-axis.
vantz Messages 13 Reaction score 0 Jan 23, 2011 #3 what's the proof? I can't understand why this is the case Thank you
gneill Mentor Messages 20,989 Reaction score 2,934 Jan 24, 2011 #4 vantz said: what's the proof? I can't understand why this is the case Thank you Look at the diagram. Note where the angle θ is. If θ was 2π, where would that put the radius vector?
vantz said: what's the proof? I can't understand why this is the case Thank you Look at the diagram. Note where the angle θ is. If θ was 2π, where would that put the radius vector?