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Why are the integration bounds from -pi/2 to pi/2 and not 0 to pi?

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- Thread starter vantz
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- #1

- 13

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Why are the integration bounds from -pi/2 to pi/2 and not 0 to pi?

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- #2

gneill

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Why are the integration bounds from -pi/2 to pi/2 and not 0 to pi?

Because the angle is with respect to the positive y-axis.

- #3

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what's the proof? I can't understand why this is the case

Thank you

Thank you

- #4

gneill

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what's the proof? I can't understand why this is the case

Thank you

Look at the diagram. Note where the angle θ is. If θ was 2π, where would that put the radius vector?

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