I Integration Method Used to Transform Equation 1 into Equation 2?

knockout_artist
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Hi,

what kind if integration used on equation 1 so it turned into equation 2? this does not look like integration by parts. and where (x-x0) appeared from instead of (k-k0) ?

thanks for your help.
 
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No integration was done. For instance, for the imaginary term, you multiply by the right-hand side by ##\exp[i k_0(x-x_0)] \exp[-i k_0(x-x_0)]##, and move the second exponential inside the integral sign.
 
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No integration has been done yet. It's the old mathematical trick of multiplying and dividing by the same thing.
Outside the integral is a factor of
$$\exp\left[-\frac{(x-x_0)^2}2(\Delta k)^2\right]$$
and inside the integral is a factor of the reciprocal
$$\exp\left[\frac{(x-x_0)^2}2(\Delta k)^2\right]$$
These cancel each other out.

They can be freely moved through the integral sign because they do not involve the integration variable ##k##.

EDIT: Darn, Dr Claude jinxed me. Now I'm not allowed to talk for the rest of the day.
 
I bet you are reading from a Russian book translated into English decades ago.
 
dextercioby said:
I bet you are reading from a Russian book translated into English decades ago.
:D I have many of those books too.
But this image is from David Bohm's Quantum Theory.
 
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If we release an electron around a positively charged sphere, the initial state of electron is a linear combination of Hydrogen-like states. According to quantum mechanics, evolution of time would not change this initial state because the potential is time independent. However, classically we expect the electron to collide with the sphere. So, it seems that the quantum and classics predict different behaviours!
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