I am reviewing some material on Laplace Transforms, specifically in the context of solving PDEs, and have a question.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Suppose I have an Inverse Laplace Transform of the form u(s,t)=e^((as^2+bs)t) where a,b<0. How can I invert this with respect to s, giving a function u(x,t)? Would the inverse transform simply be a convolution?

Thanks!

David

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# Inverse Laplace Transform of a product of exponential functions

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