- #1

metdave

- 5

- 0

Suppose I have an Inverse Laplace Transform of the form u(s,t)=e^((as^2+bs)t) where a,b<0. How can I invert this with respect to s, giving a function u(x,t)? Would the inverse transform simply be a convolution?

Thanks!

David

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- Thread starter metdave
- Start date

- #1

metdave

- 5

- 0

Suppose I have an Inverse Laplace Transform of the form u(s,t)=e^((as^2+bs)t) where a,b<0. How can I invert this with respect to s, giving a function u(x,t)? Would the inverse transform simply be a convolution?

Thanks!

David

- #2

JJacquelin

- 801

- 34

I fear that this may not be possible.

Try to find the Inverse Laplace transform of exp(-s²) for example.

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