Inverse of Automorphism is an Automorphism

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Homework Statement


Verify that the inverse of an automorphism is an automorphism.


Homework Equations




The Attempt at a Solution



Let f:G\to G be an automorphism. Then, f(xy)=f(x)f(y) \forall x,y\in G.
Then, we define the inverse f^{-1}:G\to G by f^{-1}(f(x)) = f(f^{-1}(x)) = x \;\;\forall x\in G. We get f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))=f^{-1}(f(xy))=xy=f^{-1}(f(x))f^{-1}(f(y)). Since f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))=f^{-1}(f(x))f^{-1}(f(y)), f^{-1} is an automorphism.

I was watching http://www.extension.harvard.edu/openlearning/math222/" , and this came up as an exercise in lecture 3. I was wondering if I did this problem correctly.
 
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BrianMath said:

Homework Statement


Verify that the inverse of an automorphism is an automorphism.


Homework Equations




The Attempt at a Solution



Let f:G\to G be an automorphism. Then, f(xy)=f(x)f(y) \forall x,y\in G.
Then, we define the inverse f^{-1}:G\to G by f^{-1}(f(x)) = f(f^{-1}(x)) = x \;\;\forall x\in G. We get f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))=f^{-1}(f(xy))=xy=f^{-1}(f(x))f^{-1}(f(y)). Since f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))=f^{-1}(f(x))f^{-1}(f(y)), f^{-1} is an automorphism.

I was watching http://www.extension.harvard.edu/openlearning/math222/" , and this came up as an exercise in lecture 3. I was wondering if I did this problem correctly.

Seems good! :smile:
As an exercise however, it would be benificial if you indicated where exactly you use injectivity and surjectivity...
 
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There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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