- #1
McLaren Rulez
- 292
- 3
I came across this statement but I am not so sure. I was stuck on this counter-example
[tex]
\begin{pmatrix}
0&1\\0&0
\end{pmatrix}
[/tex]
I'm not really sure what happens to this because the eigenvalues are both zero. I don't know whether this is called diagonalizable because it would just be diag(0,0) or not. And is the general statement true?
Thank you.
[tex]
\begin{pmatrix}
0&1\\0&0
\end{pmatrix}
[/tex]
I'm not really sure what happens to this because the eigenvalues are both zero. I don't know whether this is called diagonalizable because it would just be diag(0,0) or not. And is the general statement true?
Thank you.