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Not really homework, but a textbook-style question...
Is every subset of a totally bounded set (of a metric space) totally bounded?
F is said to be totally bounded if, for every \epsilon>0, there's a finite subset F_0\subset F such that F\subset\bigcup_{x\in F_0}B(x,\epsilon), where B(x,\epsilon) is the open ball of radius \epsilon around x.
Suppose that E\subset F, and that F is totally bounded. Let \epsilon>0 be arbitrary. We know that there exists a finite set F_0\subset F such that E\subset F\subset\bigcup_{x\in F_0}B(x,\epsilon), but this doesn't seem to help, since F_0 doesn't have to be a subset of E. We might even have F_0\cap E=\emptyset. So now I'm starting to think that maybe E doesn't have to be totally bounded at all. For example, if F is some open ball in \mathbb R^2 and E is some kind of fractal or something.
Homework Statement
Is every subset of a totally bounded set (of a metric space) totally bounded?
Homework Equations
F is said to be totally bounded if, for every \epsilon>0, there's a finite subset F_0\subset F such that F\subset\bigcup_{x\in F_0}B(x,\epsilon), where B(x,\epsilon) is the open ball of radius \epsilon around x.
The Attempt at a Solution
Suppose that E\subset F, and that F is totally bounded. Let \epsilon>0 be arbitrary. We know that there exists a finite set F_0\subset F such that E\subset F\subset\bigcup_{x\in F_0}B(x,\epsilon), but this doesn't seem to help, since F_0 doesn't have to be a subset of E. We might even have F_0\cap E=\emptyset. So now I'm starting to think that maybe E doesn't have to be totally bounded at all. For example, if F is some open ball in \mathbb R^2 and E is some kind of fractal or something.