iamqsqsqs
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If we know f(x)^2 and f(x)^3 are both holomorphic, can we say that f(x) itself is also holomorphic? And how to prove that?
iamqsqsqs said:If we know f(x)^2 and f(x)^3 are both holomorphic, can we say that f(x) itself is also holomorphic? And how to prove that?