Is Motional EMF the True Explanation for Induced EMF in Faraday's Law?

AI Thread Summary
Motional EMF is a key concept in understanding induced EMF as described by Faraday's Law. Faraday's Law is a fundamental principle in physics that cannot be derived from simpler laws but was established through careful experimentation. Maxwell later formalized these observations into mathematical equations, which were further refined by Heaviside. The discussion emphasizes the historical significance of these developments in electromagnetism. Overall, the relationship between motional EMF and Faraday's Law is rooted in experimental findings rather than a singular "real explanation."
yuenkf
Messages
10
Reaction score
0
is "motional emf "the real explanation for the reason why emf is induced in faraday law?? thanks...
 
Physics news on Phys.org
What do you mean by "real explanation"? The local form of Faraday's law is one of the basic laws in physics. It cannot be somehow derived from simpler laws. It was discovered by Faraday making many careful experiments and observations and then brought into a mathematical form by Maxwell in analyzing these experiments. The form of the Maxwell equations in terms of vector fields as we learn them today is due to Heaviside.
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Thread 'Beam on an inclined plane'
Hello! I have a question regarding a beam on an inclined plane. I was considering a beam resting on two supports attached to an inclined plane. I was almost sure that the lower support must be more loaded. My imagination about this problem is shown in the picture below. Here is how I wrote the condition of equilibrium forces: $$ \begin{cases} F_{g\parallel}=F_{t1}+F_{t2}, \\ F_{g\perp}=F_{r1}+F_{r2} \end{cases}. $$ On the other hand...
Back
Top