Is My Calculation for Pressure Loss in German Pipework Accurate?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on calculating pressure loss in German pipework for a heating system, specifically using a 76mm carbon steel pipe for a 200kW biomass boiler. The original poster outlines their method for determining flow rate and pressure loss but questions the accuracy of their assumptions with the new pipework. A key point of confusion arises around the interpretation of transfer rates, with a suggestion that the multiplication of power and velocity may not yield meaningful results. The need for clarity on energy transfer in the context of pipe length is emphasized, indicating a potential misunderstanding of the calculations. Overall, the conversation highlights the complexities of adapting to different pipework specifications and the importance of accurate calculations in plumbing systems.
vespak
Messages
6
Reaction score
0
My sincere apologies if this is not the right place however I will pose the problem: Being a humble plumber rather than a physicist I am used to calculating pressure loss in copper pipework for hot water heating systems by determining the required flow rate kW/h / specific heat x delta T. Looking on my resistance chart measured in m/head and by selecting a pipe size that is suitable for the index circuit multiplying the total equivalent length by the resistance figure given in the chart (which I have always assumed to be in kPa/m) to give me the m/head calculation to select the right size pump. Sorry I know that's all very basic. I now have to deal with a new type of German pipework that has completely different values in the pressure loss chart and I just want to know if I am making the right assumptions. I need a pipe size that will give me a flow rate of 2.38 l/s over an equivalent pipe length of 250m (district heating main flow/return for a 200kW biomass wood pellet boiler. The value line I am looking at for 76mm carbon steel pipe reads as follows:
Q(w) (kg/h) v (m/s) DeltaP (Pa/m)
200000 8598.5 0.59 42

I have made the following assumptions:
Q=energy and so given the value v 0.59 m/s equals a transfer rate of 20kW x 0.59m/s
My 2.38 l/s x 3600 = 8568 l/h which is the same as kg/h and is the nearest equivalent I can find on the chart.
v is just above the acceptable level for the slowest movement of heating water even though it is a closed pressurized system
DeltaP in Pa/m is converted to kPa/m to give me the total resistance to calculate my pump size: 250m*0.042=10.5 m/head
If this is all completely wrong or just in the wrong place please feel free to express your opinions to that effect however I would be grateful for some helpful direction.
Many thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
This is totally unfamiliar - but unless someone with specific knowledge can step in, I'll give it a go.
flow rate in kW/h / specific heat x delta T makes sense - that would be the volume of water required to transfer that amount of heat energy per second.

However - I baulk at
'given the value v 0.59 m/s equals a transfer rate of 20kW x 0.59m/s' (I think you meant 200kW)

I'm not clear on what transfer rate means in this context - you have a power multiplied by a speed - that is energy-per-second multiplied by metres-per-second. That doesn't give a result that means anything to me physically. But if it were divided instead of multiplied, you would have energy-per-meter - that is the total energy in a length of pipe . That sounds like a useful thing to know? (roughly 339 kilowatt-seconds per meter)

Am I helping or hindering? :smile:
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Back
Top