Is Partial Quantum Collapse Possible Through Selective Measurement?

Yoni
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Can you make a measurement that doesn't make the particle completely collapse into a single state, but partially collapse dismissing just some of the possible states?
 
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Any attempt to record the properties of a lepton results in an immediate change in the particles properties, and since it has infinite probable locations doing so would achieve nothing.
 
Yoni said:
Can you make a measurement that doesn't make the particle completely collapse into a single state, but partially collapse dismissing just some of the possible states?

Absolutely! A graphic example would be an particle pair entangled on both momentum-position and polarization bases. A basis measurement on one of the pair will leave the other in an uncollapsed state on the other basis. This really applies to any particle anytime, but this example makes it obvious since the resulting remaining entanglement can be observed.
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
Not an expert in QM. AFAIK, Schrödinger's equation is quite different from the classical wave equation. The former is an equation for the dynamics of the state of a (quantum?) system, the latter is an equation for the dynamics of a (classical) degree of freedom. As a matter of fact, Schrödinger's equation is first order in time derivatives, while the classical wave equation is second order. But, AFAIK, Schrödinger's equation is a wave equation; only its interpretation makes it non-classical...
I am looking at the Laughlin wave function and it contains the term $$\prod_{j<k}^{N}\left(z_j-z_k\right)^q$$ In Wikipedia the lower index on ##\Pi## is ##1\le i<j\le N## and there is no upper index. I'm not sure what either mean. For example would $$\prod_{j<k}^{N}\left(z_j-z_k\right)^q=\prod_{k=2}^{N}\left[\prod_{j=1}^{k-1}\left(z_j-z_k\right)^q\right]?$$ (It seems that ##k## cannot be 1 because there would be nothing to multiply in the second product). I'm not sure what else the...

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