Is Proper Time Invariance Proven?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the invariance of proper time, exploring whether it is proven to be invariant and the implications of this property within the context of special relativity. Participants engage in both conceptual and mathematical reasoning related to the definition and proof of proper time invariance.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants assert that proper time is invariant by definition, as it is the time measured by a clock along a specific world line.
  • Others propose that while proper time is invariant, it can be manipulated in scenarios to yield different values, suggesting a variable aspect before measurement.
  • A mathematical proof is presented that demonstrates proper time's invariance under Lorentz transformations, detailing the relationship between increments in proper time and coordinate transformations.
  • One participant expresses satisfaction with the mathematical proof provided, indicating it met their inquiry regarding proper time invariance.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that proper time is invariant, with some nuances regarding its definition and implications. However, there is no consensus on the interpretation of its variability prior to measurement.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes mathematical derivations that depend on specific assumptions related to inertial coordinate systems and the definitions of proper time and Lorentz transformations. Some steps in the mathematical proof may require further clarification or context.

thoughtgaze
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is proper time invariant? proof? thanks...
 
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thoughtgaze said:
is proper time invariant? proof? thanks...

Proper time is invariant by definition. It's the time read on a clock, for that clock.

It's similar in a way to the probability of throwing a six on a die. Before you start, the chances of getting a six are 1/6. Once you have thrown the die and got a six, the chances of having a six are 1/1.

Similarly, you can manipulate your scenario to get whatever proper time you want, and to that extent it is variable. But once you have your proper time (which has been read from a clock, for that clock), it's invariant.

cheers,

neopolitan
 
thoughtgaze said:
is proper time invariant? proof? thanks...

Yes, it is invariant; by almost by definition. Proper time is the time measured by a clock in a given world line. What you can prove are that the co-ordinate transforms conserve proper time.

Here is a proof for special relativity, that proper time is invariant under the Lorentz transformation.

The increment in proper time du for a clock moving a small distance dx in a small time dt is, by definition
[tex]du^2 = dt^2 - (dx/c)^2[/tex]​

That is for any inertial co-ordinate system.

Suppose we transform to a new co-ordinate system. The Lorenz transformations are
[tex]\begin{align*}<br /> t' & = \gamma ( t - vx/c^2 ) \\<br /> x' & = \gamma ( x - vt ) \\<br /> \intertext{Where}<br /> \gamma & = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-(v/c)^2)}} \\<br /> \intertext{Hence}<br /> dt' & = \gamma ( dt - (v/c^2).dx ) \\<br /> dx' & = \gamma ( dx - v.dt ) \\<br /> \intertext{Hence}<br /> dt'^2 - (dx'/c)^2 & = \gamma^2 ( ( dt - (v/c^2).dx )^2 - ( dx/c - (v/c).dt )^2 ) \\<br /> & = \gamma^2 ( dt^2 - 2(v/c)(dx/c).dt + (v/c)^2.(dx/c)^2 - (dx/c)^2 + 2(v/c).(dx/c).dt - (v/c)^2.dt^2) \\<br /> & = \gamma^2 ( 1 - (v/c)^2 ) ( dt^2 - (dx/c)^2 ) \\<br /> & = dt^2 - (dx/c)^2<br /> \end{align}[/tex]​
 
sylas said:
Yes, it is invariant; by almost by definition. Proper time is the time measured by a clock in a given world line. What you can prove are that the co-ordinate transforms conserve proper time.

Here is a proof for special relativity, that proper time is invariant under the Lorentz transformation.

bravo, this is all i needed to see thank you very much :)
 

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