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Homework Statement
Is it true that if X x Y has the same homotopy type as X' x Y', then X has the same homotopy type as X' or Y' and Y has the same homotopy type as Y' or X' (the one not already in use by X).
The Attempt at a Solution
I've tried finding a counter-exemple, but no luck. I've also established that the (natural) procedure to show that X\simeq X', \ \ Y\simeq Y' \ \Rightarrow X\times Y \simeq X'\times Y' does not work in the other direction (i.e. we can't go backward from explicit homotopies btw X x Y and X' x Y' to explicit homotopies btw X and Y and X' and Y')