Is the Integral \int^{2}_{0}\frac{dx}{1-x^{2}} Convergent?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around testing the convergence of the integral \(\int^{2}_{0}\frac{dx}{1-x^{2}}\). Participants are exploring the implications of singularities in the integrand and the behavior of the integral near problematic points.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the singularity at \(x=1\) and the potential issues with integrating directly from 0 to 2. There are attempts to break the integral into parts and evaluate limits, particularly around the problematic point. Questions arise about the computation of limits and the nature of indeterminate forms.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights into the nature of the limits involved and the implications of singularities. There is a focus on understanding how to approach the integral by considering intervals separately, though no consensus on a definitive method has been reached.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the integral's behavior at \(x=1\) and express confusion regarding the computation of limits that approach negative infinity. The discussion reflects the challenges posed by the problem's setup and the constraints of introductory calculus.

Bipolarity
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Homework Statement


Test the following integral for convergence
\int^{2}_{0}\frac{dx}{1-x^{2}}


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



So far I have brought it down to

\int^{2}_{0}\frac{1}{1-x}+\frac{1}{1+x} dx

However, it seems that this integral produces a natural logarithm, which then must be evaluated with a negative logerand, making it a complex number.
My textbook is introductory calculus, so it deals strictly with real numbers, so I am puzzled.

BiP
 
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Have you noticed there is a problem at ##x=1##? Also, for what it's worth,$$
\int \frac 1 u\, du = \ln|u| + C$$which works when the argument is negative.
 
For one thing, the integrand is singular at x=1. You don't want to integrate directly from 0 to 2. That's dangerous. Try the integral from 0 to 1 first. And for another, you can take the integral of 1/(1-x) to be -log(|1-x|). Note the absolute value.
 
LCKurtz said:
Have you noticed there is a problem at ##x=1##? Also, for what it's worth,$$
\int \frac 1 u\, du = \ln|u| + C$$which works when the argument is negative.

Thanks!

The problem has been reduced to

\lim_{x→1-}ln(|1-x|)-\lim_{x→1+}ln(|1-x|)

I can't fathom how I would compute this though. I am not very good with one-sided limits being subtracted from each other.

BiP
 
Bipolarity said:
Thanks!

The problem has been reduced to

\lim_{x→1-}ln(|1-x|)-\lim_{x→1+}ln(|1-x|)

I can't fathom how I would compute this though. I am not very good with one-sided limits being subtracted from each other.

BiP

Don't do that. Just work on the interval [0,1) first. If it doesn't converge, then the whole integral can't converge.
 
Bipolarity said:
Thanks!

The problem has been reduced to

\lim_{x→1-}ln(|1-x|)-\lim_{x→1+}ln(|1-x|)

I can't fathom how I would compute this though. I am not very good with one-sided limits being subtracted from each other.

BiP

Consider when x→1-. So you have the possibility of all values less than one being considered here, including the negative ones.

As for x→1+, note that ln|-x| = ln(x). You can apply the abs before taking the ln I believe.
 
Zondrina said:
Consider when x→1-. So you have the possibility of all values less than one being considered here, including the negative ones.

As for x→1+, note that ln|-x| = ln(x). You can apply the abs before taking the ln I believe.

Both limits are negative infinity. That's what's confusing Bipolarity. The difference is quite undefined.
 
Dick said:
Both limits are negative infinity. That's what's confusing Bipolarity. The difference is quite undefined.

I was just stating that they could be computed :P, but yeah what you said would actually help him get the answer he wants.
 
Zondrina said:
I was just stating that they could be computed :P, but yeah what you said would actually help him get the answer he wants.

I get how to do the problem but can that limit actually be computed? If so, how?

BiP
 
  • #10
Bipolarity said:
I get how to do the problem but can that limit actually be computed? If so, how?

BiP

The difference of the two terms can't be computed. You are clear on that, right?
 
  • #11
Dick said:
The difference of the two terms can't be computed. You are clear on that, right?

I see. Is it always the case that the difference between two limits, each of which does not by itself exist, is incalculable?

BiP
 
  • #12
Bipolarity said:
I see. Is it always the case that the difference between two limits, each of which does not by itself exist, is incalculable?

BiP

Almost. The form (+infinity)-(+infinity) is not defined. On the other hand you can define (+infinity)+(+infinity) to be +infinity. So you can define (+infinity)-(-infinity) to be +infinity. Do you see how that applies to your example when you have the other sign on the infinite limits?
 

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