Is the Laplace Transform F(s) = 1/(1+s^2) Defined for All Real Values of s?

ming2194
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Homework Statement


http://u1.imgupload.co.uk/1257811200/9e4e_image.bmp

Homework Equations


find above

The Attempt at a Solution



in fact i had no problem in the progress of doing this question and finally i got F(s)= 1/1+s^2

and i want to ask it is vaild for all value of s since it is s^2?
is it true for no matter s is >0 or s is <0?
 
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I can't think of any reason why it wouldn't be defined for all real s.
 

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