Is the Moment of Inertia strictly different

[deep838]

I would like to know if there is any proof as to whether the moment of inertia for two bodies (the masses of each body are distributed on a line) about their respective center of masses, is strictly different. If not, can anyone provide me a link to where the work is computed.

 

[SteamKing]

Your question is somewhat vague.

How is the mass of each body 'distributed on a line'? What does that mean?

 

[deep838]

I mean to say that the bodies are not 2 dimensional, they only have length.. Like a rope. Only the distribution is not continuous, it is made of a number of masses

 

[A.T.]

I mean to say that the bodies are not 2 dimensional, they only have length.. Like a rope. Only the distribution is not continuous, it is made of a number of masses

You derive the total moment of inertia by integrating (adding up) the moments of inertia, of these masses.

 

[deep838]

You derive the total moment of inertia by integrating (adding up) the moments of inertia, of these masses.

Yes, but is that value strictly different for two different bodies? Or can two mass distribution have the same moment of inertia?

 

[A.T.]

Or can two mass distribution have the same moment of inertia?

Of course they can.

 

[sophiecentaur]

Yes, but is that value strictly different for two different bodies? Or can two mass distribution have the same moment of inertia?

Have you actually looked at the definition of MI?