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Is the Moment of Inertia strictly different

  1. Aug 5, 2014 #1
    I would like to know if there is any proof as to whether the moment of inertia for two bodies (the masses of each body are distributed on a line) about their respective center of masses, is strictly different. If not, can anyone provide me a link to where the work is computed.
  2. jcsd
  3. Aug 5, 2014 #2


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    Your question is somewhat vague.

    How is the mass of each body 'distributed on a line'? What does that mean?
  4. Aug 5, 2014 #3
    I mean to say that the bodies are not 2 dimensional, they only have length.. Like a rope. Only the distribution is not continuous, it is made of a number of masses
  5. Aug 5, 2014 #4


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    You derive the total moment of inertia by integrating (adding up) the moments of inertia, of these masses.
  6. Aug 5, 2014 #5
    Yes, but is that value strictly different for two different bodies? Or can two mass distribution have the same moment of inertia?
  7. Aug 5, 2014 #6


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    Of course they can.
  8. Aug 6, 2014 #7


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    Have you actually looked at the definition of MI?
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